Originally posted by El_Guero:
BB
The Bible is what I cited. When you did not like the Word of God, I gave the words of men called by God to ministry. When you didn't like that, I researched the traditional church's point of view.
It is not that I did not like the Word of God. I love the Bible and hold it in the highest esteem. It is the inerrant, infallible, inspired Word of God. What I objected to (or charged against your use of it) is your interpretation of the Word. When you did quote Scripture it looked to me as if you had:
1. Started with the presupposition that specific men are called by God to specific places at specific times to be pastors today.
2. Went searching for a proof text that you believe supports that presupposition.
3. Ignored the context of the entire passage in Jeremiah.
4. Imported an outside meaning onto the word “sent” so that you could force it to mean “called.”
If in fact this is the case these hermeneutical problems result in eisegesis of the Scriptures and end in a faulty interpretation of what the Bible actually says. Again, if I have misunderstood you please accept my apology and my invitation to correct my misunderstanding and further explain your use of the Scriptures.
Originally posted by El_Guero:
I have spent many hours researching this and trying to give you an out.
When I first approached God's Word through His Apostle, I felt that you might be on to a reasonable interpretation.
However, exegesis and the application of hermeneutics leads me to believe that hiring men to serve God in the position of a pastor is WRONG, if they have not been called by God.
Okay, I accept that you believe that to be correct and true. That being the case please provide a clear definition of what you mean when you say “called by God” and provide Scripture, without eisegesis, to support that definition. Then show from the text of Scripture, without eisegesis, that such a “call” is required of those who serve in ministry today.
Originally posted by El_Guero:
You continue to twist what I wrote. And that is sad.
Again, I have never intentionally set out to distort what you have said. I apologize if I have misunderstood you. Please feel free to correct any misunderstanding on my part and further clarify and explain your position.
Originally posted by El_Guero:
I admit that I am a sinner, and I do not deserve to be called by God to serve Him.
Likewise, I fully admit that I am a sinner and prone to make mistakes and misunderstand things that people say. Please help me to better understand your position by providing a clear written definition of what you mean when you use the terms “call,” “called,” calling,” and/or the phrase “God’s effectual call on your life to ministry” supported by the Scriptures (without resorting to eisegesis). Then provide Scripture, without eisegesis, which teaches that such a “calling” is required of those who serve in ministry today. Likewise, please demonstrate from the Scriptures an objective manner in which one can recognize and know that he has received such a “calling.”
Originally posted by El_Guero:
I tried to take your side, because I really don't want to be called. Being woken up at 2 AM and 3 AM by a Holy God when you are a sinner is NOT FUN. It is a noble work, but it is NOT ATTRACTIVE.
I fully agree with your first two statements. I think I understand what you are getting at in your third statement. However, I would point you back to 1 Tim. 3:1 and note that the Word of God teaches that it is also “a good work” (1 Tim. 3:1, NKJV).
Originally posted by El_Guero:
Because of this humility and fear before the Almighty hand of God, I have tried to interpret the Word of God in the manner that you have continued to profess.
I strongly believe that we must continually recognize our presuppositions and set them aside in order to allow the text of Scripture to speak for itself. Additionally, I believe that the application of a literal, historical grammatical reading and understanding of the Scriptures is the only sound hermeneutical method that provides solid exegesis and the proper interpretation of the Bible. There are a couple of exceptions to this method. One is when you are dealing with certain prophetic passages, when you are dealing with the parables, and/or when the text itself indicates it is speaking metaphorically (e.g. “…the trees of the field shall clap their hands.” Isa. 55:12). Clearly, trees do not have hands to clap.
Originally posted by El_Guero:
I came to the conclussion some time ago, 'a man (or woman) desiring to serve God is noble,' but a 'human desire' does equate to a 'call from God to His ministry.'
Okay, I can accept that you believe that to be true and correct. However, you have not yet demonstrated from the text of Scripture, without eisegesis, that God does indeed “call” (as you are using the term) men into ministry, or that the Scripture, without eisegesis, requires such a “call” for those who serve in ministry today.
Originally posted by El_Guero:
You have NEVER provided any scripture that supports the view that someone does not need to be called. The only scripture you point to is 1 Tim 3:1.
That is not true. I pointed to the full list of requirements for elders found in 1 Tim. 3:1-7. I also pointed to the requirements for elders found in Titus 1:5-9 and 1 Pet. 5. These are the best lists of requirements for elders (pastors) that I can find in Scripture. Please note that the term “call” is not found in any of those passages. Likewise, none of those passages ever even hint at the idea that a “call” (as you appear to be using the term) is required for those who serve in ministry today.
Originally posted by El_Guero:
You need to revisit why you lost your call from God. The path you have chosen on this interpretation is a slippery slope.
You keep insisting that I “lost my call from God.” However, I never said such a thing. I did say that I changed my theological position and understanding of the term “call.” I define and use the term according to the ways that it is defined by and used in the text of Scripture. My position on the term goes much further than what we have discussed here. I have not fully stated to you what I believe about the term(s). I have only asserted that the way you appear to be using the term is not correct and not supported by the text of Scripture. However, we have gotten sidetracked on various topics about hermeneutics, eisegesis, exegesis, interpretive methods, positions of different theologians, etc. I would much rather keep the discussion focused on the Scripture. If we can ever come to an agreement on the proper biblical definition of the term(s) and the Scriptural support for their use and meaning, then I will be free to continue with the full explanation of my beliefs on this issue. I assure you it is solidly grounded in the Word and does not involve any slippery slope.
[ December 09, 2005, 02:15 AM: Message edited by: Bible-boy ]