• Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!

God's hardening vs. total depravity

Timtoolman

New Member
Originally posted by npetreley:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Timtoolman:
npet, I will give you the benefit of the doubt since you seem to be new. I have answered that in ealier threads. It is simpley this.
Even as it is today the word of God does one of two things. It is recieved or rejected. It either cultavates or softens the heart or it hardens it. Any man, and I have wittnesses this over and over in my lifetime, who sits under the gospel has to make a choice. I have seen white knuckles hanging onto a pew not to respond. Untill they have set under the word of God and rejectected the word and HS so long that their hearts become harden. And Harder it becomes as the sit under the gospel.
You continue to avoid explaining how your view does not contradict the free will interpretations of 2 Peter 3:9. REGARDLESS OF THE REASON (whether or not man hardened his own heart first), if God must harden a man's heart in order to block his innate ability to respond to the Gospel, then God is certainly willing that some should perish, and -- according to YOU, not me -- takes action to make sure they perish. Therefore, according to your premise, 2 Peter 3:9 cannot possibly mean that God is not willing that ANY (anyone who lived, lives or will live) perish.

Obviously you are unable to reconcile your view with 2 Peter 3:9 because you are doing everything possible to avoid the issue with each post.
</font>[/QUOTE]You are playing Scott with me now. I MOST assuredly have shown why God hardens hearts in my last post. Rather you like the answer or not is different but the answer is there!
 

Timtoolman

New Member
Originally posted by Scott J:
Perhaps I missed Tim's scriptural proof of this idea that God hardens individuals so that they cannot believe unto salvation. The only possible qualifying scripture in the NT I know of demonstrates in context that it was a general hardening of the Jews so that they would refuse the Messiah's kingdom. The passage clearly declares that there were some that believed.... so "they" cannot possibly refer to all of them.

Tim, If you have tried to prove this somewhere then a link would be more than sufficient for an answer.
Get back to you Scott, there is alot and it will take awhile. Give me acouple of hours, I have to go to work.
 

Scott J

Active Member
Site Supporter
Originally posted by Timtoolman:
You are playing Scott with me now. I MOST assuredly have shown why God hardens hearts in my last post. Rather you like the answer or not is different but the answer is there!
Do what?

All I did was ask you for information.

I have in the past confronted you for giving answers that do not address the essence of the question... but not here... and not my problem. As far as I know, I have answered you directly to every question you have ever posed.

I ask you questions that have simple, biblical, yes/no/explain type answers... and you evade.

I'm not "playing"- that's what you have done.
 
Top