In John 1 one may read:
How do you explain “grace for grace?”
Is it, as the Berean Study Bible renders the passage, a grace “upon” grace. Am I to suppose grace has some limited amount, so there is extra added?
Is it, as the KJV renders the passage, a grace “for” grace. Am I to suppose something lesser is exchanged for better?
Your thoughts?
I will give my own thinking further in the thread.
16From His fullness we have all received grace upon grace. 17For the law was given through Moses; grace and truth came through Jesus Christ. 18No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is Himself God andd is at the Father’s side, has made Him known. (Berean Study Bible)
16And of his fulness have all we received, and grace for grace. 17For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ. 18No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. (KJV)
16And of his fulness have all we received, and grace for grace. 17For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ. 18No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. (KJV)
Is it, as the Berean Study Bible renders the passage, a grace “upon” grace. Am I to suppose grace has some limited amount, so there is extra added?
Is it, as the KJV renders the passage, a grace “for” grace. Am I to suppose something lesser is exchanged for better?
Your thoughts?
I will give my own thinking further in the thread.