Though Jesus could not sin, could experience the tempation, and even more so then any of us, as he is holy, and we are not!
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Grace of Reformed Theology/R.C. Sproul
- Thread starter Quantrill
- Start date
What is 'more to consider'. You just say the same things.
When satan was tempting Christ. he wasn't separating His human or divine natures. And as I said in post #(29), the first two temptations in (Matthew) were directed at Christ's Deity. "If thou be the Son of God.".
Indeed, satan's attempts to make Christ sin was an exercise in futility. I have already said that. The temptation of Christ by satan was directed by the Holy Spirit. Not satan. It was never to see if Christ would sin or not. It was to reveal Who this Man, Christ, was.
Well, as I have said, those who lean toward Christ being able to sin, also lean toward a legalistic grace. If it is ok with you, so be it.
Quantrill
Some also have seen it as Jesus resisting sinning by the power of the Holy Spirit, so they would see that as a reason that they can also do His miracles and works, and even get to sinless state!
Compare Satan's tempting of the first Adam with the tempting of the 2nd Adam. It's a worthy study. Both were holy and perfect. Both were tempted with food. Both were tempted in isolation from God the Father. Both had the capacity to choose. One failed, the other succeeded. Why?
Lodic
Well-Known Member
The obvious answer is "No, God is incapable of sin". Philippians 2:5-8 tells us that Jesus "emptied Himself" and was born in the likeness of men. I believe in that state that Jesus was capable of sin, but He had no desire to do so.
He never ceased to be God, did he?
Lodic
Well-Known Member
We seem to be repeating the same points, and I'm okay to agree to disagree on topics like this one that don't really affect major doctrine. I'm still not sure what you mean about leaning toward legalistic grace. It sounds like a contradiction in terms.
Lodic
Well-Known Member
No, Brother, Jesus never ceased to be God. While that is a good argument, Jesus suffered from hunger and exhaustion, where God does not. Shall we agree to disagree on this one?
God became a Human, so he assumed all of our frailties except had no sin nature!
Lodic
Well-Known Member
On that point I completely agree. Then again, Adam was also created without a sin nature.
He was not God though!
Lodic
Well-Known Member
Since neither of us are saying anything new, I'm ready to drop the subject. Neither of us are likely to convince the other of their view, and that's okay. Catch you later on a different topic.
And it is a contradiction in terms. I can assure you, it will surface in due course of the discussion.
Quantrill
Lodic
Well-Known Member
I am dropping out of this discussion since the same points are repeated on both sides. Blessings.
Without a doubt the Holy Spirit was involved as God the Son was involved. As God the Son, Jesus always had the presence of the Father and the Holy Spirit. Until of course He was forsaken at the Cross. And He had not the Spirit just partially. Fully. (John 3:34) "...for God giveth not the Spirit by measure unto him."
In other words, Jesus, as God the Son, had what Adam didn't have. And even we who are born-again do not have the fullness of the Holy Spirit as Christ had. We have but a measure.
As to the 'sinless state', God has already placed us there. That which is born of God cannot sin. (1 John 3:9) "Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God."
Some may say, but I still sin, so how can God say that? Because God sees it all. We do not. We see all that we do as by ourself, one person. But God can see the old nature and that which is born-again. And He does not attribute sin to that which is born-again, our new nature.
Experientially you will never get to a sinless state here in this present life. Why? Because we have the old nature. And the old nature is full of sin and at odds with God.
Quantrill
2nd Adam and Last Adam would be synonymous.
Not hardly. Scripture is clear that Christ was the Last Adam. He was the Second Man. (1 Cor. 15:45-47)
What a twisting of Scripture you present.
Quantrill
The Second Adam
Why Is Jesus Called the "Second Adam"?
Why Is Jesus Called the Last Adam and the Second Man?
As I said, they are synonymous.
As I said, what a twisting of Scripture you present. I note that you have no Scripture to support you. I have Scripture to support me.
But then, what does Scripture matter to you?
Quantrill