Originally posted by terrell:
[QB] UZTHD, would you mind explaining the passage for those of us who have not been trained in any of the original languages.
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Well no.
I think this thread is concerned with the question of whether or not the Biblical languages are important to a working knowledge of the Biblical text. This text was sort of a response for a demand for proof. Were I to answer questions about it that would dull my modest attempt at "proof" wouldn't it?
[Besides, I'm too modest to give opinions
]
Oh well, I'll mention a few things the pastor may be interested to think about when he/she preaches on Phil 2:6,7:
1) What is the significance for the incarnation of the present tense which begins v.6?
Does it mean that the enfleshed Son yet exists in God's form? If so, is that humanity He assumed deified? Or does it mean that the Son exists both outside and inside that humanity? If He did not how could He be omniscient and so forth?
2) Does having God's form mean having God's essence?
What is the NT/LXX evidence that form=essence? What is the relationship of form to attributes? Do attributes reside in essence? If they do , how could the Son lose any as omniscience and still have the divine essence ? Yet, He did not know the time of His return?
3) What is the force of the article which precedes "equality."
Does it make equality a qualifying of 'form' or does it make equality separate from 'form'? Does the noun equality here equal the adjective attributed to Christ in John?
4) Does 'harpagmon'[grasped] mean that the Son lacks that equality as some translations infer because of the common usage [in extra NT lit.] or is harpagmon used idiomatically, ie, with a speciality, when used with verbs as egesato as Paul here opts to do?
If the Son lacked equality how could He be God? But if He already has equality then what is His exaltation?
5) How does Paul elsewhere use 'kenosis'- literally or metaphorically ?
If literally then of what was the Son emptied? If metaphorically why was that verb chosen?
Why is that verb [ekenosen] aorist but "being" is present?
6) Is emptied defined by a "taking" so that the Son in incarnating lost no divine essence or quality but instead added humanity?
But how is humanity "added" to God without changing God? But if God is not changed by that addition can there be an addition?
7) Why is the pronoun in v.7 emphatic? Does it mean that the Son was or was not following a directive from the Father in incarnating?
8) Do 'form of a servant' and likeness of men mean TRUE man or just acting like a man?
If true man, then can that humanity in distinction from the deity experience, act, and will ? If so, how can Christ not be two "persons" ? If it means just acting like a man, then was Apollinarius right?
9) Is this obedience by Christ as man or as God?
If as man does this mean the humanity has its own mind/will? If as God, does this mean God learns? [Heb 5:8] Does it mean that each Trinal Person has His own distinct faculty of will just as people as individuals do?
But then how could God be one if He has three faculties of will? But if He does not have multiple wills, then how can the Son in Gethsemene surrender His will to the Father's?
10) Christ is to be the example for the Philippians to follow. Does that mean that Christ could have chosen not to obey since they can?
If yes then , then could Christ have sinned? If no, then how can He be their example? If no, how is He human? If yes, how can God sin?
Of course the preacher in the sermon may not develop many of these ideas. But IMO he/she should do some serious research and reflection on such issues. Out of that research and reflection the sermon can be formed. There is far too much insubstantial preaching!
Or, just say whatever.
Out comes the systematic theologian in me. I really am better at that than at exegesis.
CHRISTOLOGY--I love it! It's about our LORD!