To All,
bmerr here. I'm going to say the veil, or covering, that Paul spoke of in 1 Cor 11 was a cultural distinction. Here's why.
Paul makes the statement, "But if it is shameful for a woman to be shorn or shaved, let her be covered" (1 Cor 11:6 nkjv).
"If" denotes a condition. If the situation is such that a shaved, shorn, or uncovered woman would be shameful, then a woman should be covered. If this is not the situation, then it doesn't make any difference.
As has been observed earlier, the issue in this section has to do with authority. In Corinth at the time of Paul's writing, a head covering denoted that a woman was under the authority of her husband.
In our American culture, what is the symbol that a woman is under the authority of her husband? Is it not the wedding band she wears?
Second, the fact that other women in the Bible did not wear veils, and yet were not subject to pulic shame, demonstrates that the veil was a cultural distinction.
For example, Eve had no veil. If a veil were required to be worn by all women to show that she was under the authority of her husband, would God not have provided Eve with a veil? Surely He would have, but Eve was naked, just as her husband was. Even after the forbidden fruit incident, They made themselves "aprons" out of leaves, and God provided "tunics" (NKJV word). If a "tunic" neccessitates a veil, then Adam wore one, too.
Another example is Hannah (1 Sam 1:12-13). As this married woman prayed for a son, Eli was able to see here lips moving, which would not have been possible had she been wearing a veil.
Of course, Eli thought she was drunk, but when he learned the truth, he still did not admonish her for not wearing a veil.
I wouldn't beat someone up for wearing a covering if they wanted to, but I wouldn't tell anyone they ought to if they didn't, either.
Hope this helps.
In Christ,
bmerr