Right! I now understand your position perfectly.
So how can God say through Jeremiah that He is going to make a new covenant which will not be like the first? As I showed, this new covenant was future when Jeremiah wrote, but in existence at the time of the writer to the Hebrews (c. AD60-63).
As YOU, showed, and I agreed, as Hebrews 8:8,9 shows, <<this new covenant was future when Jeremiah wrote, but in existence at the time of the writer to the Hebrews>>. You SHOW <how>, friend! If a=b and b=c, c=a / a=c no diffs. <This> same <covenant> 'was' Past Tense, already in the past when Jeremiah wrote; 'was' present and in existence at the time of the writer to the Hebrews; and 'was' to be in the future forevermore after.
I repeat,
https://www.baptistboard.com/threads/hebrews-8-no-old-covenant.104540/#post-2309142#3
In verse 8 God says "the days come that I will make New Covenant with ... Israel ... Judah, not according to the Covenant which I made WHEN I took them by the hand..." The same "Covenant" is spoken of, the "NEW Covenant" God in the past spoke of that He in the future would make with Israel Judah ---through Jesus Christ as the whole trend of the chapter indicates.
1) The same "NEW Covenant" is spoken of, which "God made according to the Covenant" :
Stipulation One, "with their fathers" verse 9.
The correlating stipulation in verse 8 is, "with the children".
2) Still the same "NEW Covenant" is spoken of, which "God made according to the Covenant" :
Stipulation Two, "with the house of Israel" verse 9,10.
The correlating stipulation in verse 8 is, "with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah".
3) Still the same "NEW Covenant" is spoken of, which "God made according to the Covenant" :
Stipulation Three, "the days come when I will" verse 9,10.
The correlating stipulation in verse 8 is, "in the day (in the past) when I took them by the hand".
4) Still the same "NEW Covenant" is spoken of, which "God made according to the Covenant" :
Stipulation Four, "THIS, Covenant I will make after those days in their mind and in their hearts" verse 10.
The correlating stipulation in verse 8 is, "finding fault with them".
Thus the contrast is completed, not between different covenants, but between different ministrations and or different aspects of "THIS Covenant".
So there is one everlasting "New Covenant", the Covenant everlastingly made previously, made everlastingly New in Christ, through Christ, in the day of Christ and for ever after the day of Christ "on the right hand of the Throne of The Majesty On High", vs.1.
Surely that reasonably is being called "THIS Covenant" and "a New Covenant"?
Now verse 12 of chapter 8 undeniably provides a fine ending to it, so that V.13 properly belongs to, and with chapter 9, which speaks of the "first tabernacle" or "worldly sanctuary". So therefore,
"With saying, 'rendered new', the first tabernacle is made old."
(('en tohi legein kainehn' Accusative, "the first tabernacle ['skehneh' 9:2], is made old." ['pepalaiohken tehn prohtehn']))
Therefore,
"8:13With saying, 'rendered new', the first tabernacle is made old. Now that which decayeth and waxeth old, is ready to disappear. 9:1So then ['eiche men oun'] the first tabernacle / sanctuary / holy place ['heh prohteh' ('skehneh') vs.2 (old) place of worship, 'topos' vs.7], had both a sanctuary / holy place for the people ... and behind the second veil, the holiest place".