Nope, as I said, you are the one in disagreement with them.So you disagree with both jesus and paul?
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Nope, as I said, you are the one in disagreement with them.So you disagree with both jesus and paul?
I must disagree with those who grant some excuse for remarriages.
Letting the husband divorce you is Biblical, however, at no place does that release you from your own vows to God.
Those offering remarriage as approved do not represent the Scriptures correctly in this matter.
Look carefully at both Christ’s and Paul’s statements before you entertain thoughts of remarriage.
I apologize in advance for just now getting back to you. But I have been diving into scripture on this topic, praying over it, and seeking the truth without trying to self justify my own situation. I am by no means a bible scholar. However, I do have a question about your post on the matter. You state that there is no place that releases me from my own vows to God. Then what is the meaning behind 1 Corinthians 7:15 in your opinion?
I've looked at multiple versions of this scripture (the following are from the two versions of the bible I most frequently read):
KJV: 1 Corinthians 7:15 "But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases: but God hath called us to peace."
ESV: 1 Corinthians 7:15 "But if the unbelieving partner separates, let it be so. In such cases the brother or sister is not enslaved. God has called you to peace."
My understanding of this verse is that if an unbelieving spouse leaves then we are to let it be. It seems to me as though you are only recognizing the first section of this verse. Paul goes on to write that the brother or sister that was left is not under bondage or enslaved. Why would Paul write this if it was not so? He could have simply stopped after his first sentence there. What would be the meaning behind his word choice of bondage/enslaved mean if it did not mean remarriage was a possibility for the deserted spouse?
I do not mean to come across as argumentative. I am genuinely seeking to understand the truth behind this. And again, I may never remarry in the future. But I'm seeking answers up front so that I know what I biblically can or cannot do in the future.
I apologize in advance for just now getting back to you. But I have been diving into scripture on this topic, praying over it, and seeking the truth without trying to self justify my own situation. I am by no means a bible scholar. However, I do have a question about your post on the matter. You state that there is no place that releases me from my own vows to God. Then what is the meaning behind 1 Corinthians 7:15 in your opinion?
I've looked at multiple versions of this scripture (the following are from the two versions of the bible I most frequently read):
KJV: 1 Corinthians 7:15 "But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases: but God hath called us to peace."
ESV: 1 Corinthians 7:15 "But if the unbelieving partner separates, let it be so. In such cases the brother or sister is not enslaved. God has called you to peace."
My understanding of this verse is that if an unbelieving spouse leaves then we are to let it be. It seems to me as though you are only recognizing the first section of this verse. Paul goes on to write that the brother or sister that was left is not under bondage or enslaved. Why would Paul write this if it was not so? He could have simply stopped after his first sentence there. What would be the meaning behind his word choice of bondage/enslaved mean if it did not mean remarriage was a possibility for the deserted spouse?
I do not mean to come across as argumentative. I am genuinely seeking to understand the truth behind this. And again, I may never remarry in the future. But I'm seeking answers up front so that I know what I biblically can or cannot do in the future.
I appreciate your position and understand many believe it. I think you are mistaken.Paul is stating that the marriage bond (that which obliges one to submit to their partner) is no longer. Basically that applies to duties and obligations (the physical, emotional, financial) obligations are no longer binding.
What neither Christ nor Paul present is that such removes the “one flesh” that God has united.
This is the reason that one who remarries after a divorce commits adultery.
A non-believer may certainly remove themselves, and even remarry. Not the believer. They represent Christ’s relationship to
His bride. That relationship is never broken.
It does seem to me that in this case that is to be understood statedly the believer would be at liberty to remarry.What would be the meaning behind his word choice of bondage/enslaved mean if it did not mean remarriage was a possibility for the deserted spouse?
If the other party has divorced and then remarried. would the Lord wants them to redivorcerce again in order to reconcile back together then?I apologize in advance for just now getting back to you. But I have been diving into scripture on this topic, praying over it, and seeking the truth without trying to self justify my own situation. I am by no means a bible scholar. However, I do have a question about your post on the matter. You state that there is no place that releases me from my own vows to God. Then what is the meaning behind 1 Corinthians 7:15 in your opinion?
I've looked at multiple versions of this scripture (the following are from the two versions of the bible I most frequently read):
KJV: 1 Corinthians 7:15 "But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases: but God hath called us to peace."
ESV: 1 Corinthians 7:15 "But if the unbelieving partner separates, let it be so. In such cases the brother or sister is not enslaved. God has called you to peace."
My understanding of this verse is that if an unbelieving spouse leaves then we are to let it be. It seems to me as though you are only recognizing the first section of this verse. Paul goes on to write that the brother or sister that was left is not under bondage or enslaved. Why would Paul write this if it was not so? He could have simply stopped after his first sentence there. What would be the meaning behind his word choice of bondage/enslaved mean if it did not mean remarriage was a possibility for the deserted spouse?
I do not mean to come across as argumentative. I am genuinely seeking to understand the truth behind this. And again, I may never remarry in the future. But I'm seeking answers up front so that I know what I biblically can or cannot do in the future.
When the party that did the divorce now remarries, the other party now freed to remarry again, correct?Paul is stating that the marriage bond (that which obliges one to submit to their partner) is no longer. Basically that applies to duties and obligations (the physical, emotional, financial) obligations are no longer binding.
What neither Christ nor Paul present is that such removes the “one flesh” that God has united.
This is the reason that one who remarries after a divorce commits adultery.
A non-believer may certainly remove themselves, and even remarry. Not the believer. They represent Christ’s relationship to
His bride. That relationship is never broken.
Paul is stating that the marriage bond (that which obliges one to submit to their partner) is no longer. Basically that applies to duties and obligations (the physical, emotional, financial) obligations are no longer binding.
What neither Christ nor Paul present is that such removes the “one flesh” that God has united.
This is the reason that one who remarries after a divorce commits adultery.
A non-believer may certainly remove themselves, and even remarry. Not the believer. They represent Christ’s relationship to
His bride. That relationship is never broken.
Not the first time I have been accused of being wrong, but on this matter, I am not. "What God has put together" can ONLY be that which becomes "one flesh" which takes place at consummation. Marriages that are not consummated are for annulment, not divorce.I appreciate your position and understand many believe it. I think you are mistaken.
If you want to tighten the language to be even more restrictive than what I presented, I have no problem, however, it is a fact that Paul discusses that the believing partner has certain obligations toward the unbelieving partner that have eternal ramifications. Those eternal ramifications do not pass because the unbeliever decides to separate from the believer.The “binding” language is more than stating what would be obvious (ie the abandoned believer has no obligation for physical, emotional, economic support toward the spouse that left)
Not true. There is no evidence that Paul (a married rabbi) was ever divorced and certainly suggested that folks be as he was - single. Rather, he states that those who marry carry the burden of family obligations that those, like himself, were not "bound" but to the service of Christ.The binding language from a rabbi (like Paul) would tell the abandoned spouse they were free to remarry.
Certainly, however, I do present it is an error to present freedom in which the Scriptures do not, and indeed expressly teach is not available.The good news for Anonymous1 is that if she makes the wrong decision, her salvation is not at stake. God is gracious and good and will forgive all transgressions.
It is good to seek opinions and study scripture. Ultimately, you must follow your conscious.
peace to you
If the other party has divorced and then remarried. would the Lord wants them to redivorcerce again in order to reconcile back together then?
We have to see this from being under Grace, and no longer the Law!
Are they both believers?When the party that did the divorce now remarries, the other party now freed to remarry again, correct?
First, it is not true that "women did not really have the ability to earn a living." The scriptures actually praise women for such ability. They bought and sold both merchandise and property. They made contractual arrangements and were respected in community leadership positions.I understand where you are coming from. But I respectfully disagree. We are also dealing with this being written during a time when women did not really have the ability to earn a living. This was the whole premise behind giving her a "bill of divorcement." So that she could in fact go remarry! I think that it was widely understood during this time that women would need to be able to remarry and therefore were not bound or enslaved to the prior marriage in any way shape or form!
Not only that but I almost feel as though 1 Corinthians 7:9 can still be applied here too. "But if they cannot contain, let them marry: for it is better to marry than to burn." I think this can be applicable even to a divorcee.
Certain, there is lust, and passion. But, that is part of the walk in which all must bring under submission to the Master. Some cannot, but some certainly do.I also wasn't the one that removed myself from the marriage but yet I should remain alone for the rest of my life and "burn with passion" for a marriage? That just doesn't seem to me what God would want for his child.
God knows my heart and knows that I will long to be remarried again eventually. Not right away and not out of the will of God, of course. But at the end of the day, I've received peace about the matter.
The remarriage ends the marriage, period, as God would not cause another divorce and then remarriage back again!Are they both believers?
Is only one a believer?
Is neither a believer?