How different are Versions?

[Craigbythesea]

Ed,

It looks to me from your data that I am not alone in believing that there is a greater difference between the 1611 KJV and 1769 KJV than there is between the 1769 KJV and the NKJV.

CBTS

 

[NaasPreacher (C4K)]

There may be more technical changes (1611-1769 vs 1769-NKJV), but I think there are fewer substantive changes.

 

[Ed Edwards]

Originally posted by Phillip:
Hi folks,

In my opinion, like Doc Bob said, there are quite a few changes, but most that I have studied are simple corrections for errors to the original translation.

I cannot say that doctrine has changed or not though because of the difficulty (or lack of enthusiasm or drive to read the 1611 English).

I beleive that there are more
doctrinal change from those who use the
same version of the KJV than between the
KJV and MVs. So obviously i believe that
there is no doctrine changed between the
KJV1611 and the KJV1769.

 

[Plain ol' Ralph]

Anybody else notice the infatuation by the same individual he has over the AV 1611 KJB?

 

[AVL1984]

POR, I think he does it for fun. I know when I was in college, I used to do something similar. My professors didn't think it was so funny, though.

AVL1984

 

[Plain ol' Ralph]

Yeah, but he looks a little too old to be a college student, but then, afterall.....

 

[AVL1984]

LOL! Guess it just goes to show, you're only as old as you feel...not as you look!

AVL1984

 

[Terry_Herrington]

I don't think that Ed posts the things he does because of his love for the 1611AV. I think Paul talked about something similar to this when he said:

Phil 1:16
16 The one preach Christ of contention, not sincerely, supposing to add affliction to my bonds:
(KJV)

I think it is evident that Ed alludes to this version in an effort to try and show that the KJVOs here do not really use the KJV. It is a childish, futile effort but hey, it's the best he has.

 

[Johnv]

Actually, Ed clearly loves the KJV. However, he detests the sin of single-translation-onlyism. When one takes a stand for the KJV, one must denounce the KJVOism false doctrine.

 

[Ed Edwards]

This sample was not very big.
Half the people wanted to avoid the question:
"how different is the KJV1769 from the KJV1611?"
One third wanted to avoid the quesiton:
"how different is the KJV1769 from the nKJV?"

Personally i think the KJV1769 is ½% different from the
KJV1611 and 2% different from the nKJV.
But that is personal and a guess. How to tell how
different is the hard part. Maybe the avoiders were
right?

 

[Dr. Bob]

Depends on how you spell "different". The NKJV rearranges word order as well as updating the text, so 2% is extremely low.

And the massive amount of changes 1611 to 1769 (think, eliminating the apochrypha, all spelling changes, plus major and minor word and doctrinal change) comes to almost 15% of the words. So .5% is unbelievably low.