How Do Christian who prefer TR Greek text view Moden Versions based upon CT?

[JesusFan]

How in the world can a critical text of the NT be "spurious"? Almost every word of it is in the TR. It leaves out words and phrases and sometimes whole verses (and I strongly object to that), but what is left is virtually all what is in the TR. Caveat: I am a Bible translator and do my work from the traditional texts, so I am certainly not advocating translating from a critical text.

Example: Here is John 3:16 from the UBS critical text: Οὕτως γὰρ ἠγάπησεν ὁ θεὸς τὸν κόσμον, ὥστε τὸν υἱὸν αὐτοῦ τὸν μονογενῆ ἔδωκεν, ἵνα πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων εἰς αὐτὸν μὴ ἀπόληται, ἀλλ᾽ ἔχῃ ζωὴν αἰώνιον.

Now here it is from the TR: Οὕτω γὰρ ἠγάπησεν ὁ Θεὸς τὸν κόσμον, ὥστε τὸν υἱὸν αὐτοῦ τὸν μονογενῆ ἔδωκεν, ἵνα πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων εἰς αὐτὸν μὴ ἀπόληται, ἀλλ᾽ ἔχῃ ζωὴν αἰώνιον.

The only difference in the UBS Greek text and the Scrivener TR is the sigma added to the very first word, which does not change the meaning in the slightest. Now, would you dare to say that the UBS is "spurious" or not the Word of God???

The Critical greek text/MT/TR text would agree with each other large amount of the time, and no major doctrines are altered/changed in the Modern versions when compared to the Kjv . One can be TR preferred and Kjv preferred, but KJVO is not viable option