Agnus_Dei said:
Exactly how again did Jesus tell Nicodemus he was supposed to be ‘born of the word?’ Keep in mind here DHK, all the references to Word of God in the NT that you refer too, hadn’t yet been penned. You think that Jesus was telling Nicodemus that he was already half way there b/c he knew only the OT?
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Psalms 119:9 Wherewithal shall a young man cleanse his way? by taking heed thereto according to thy word.
There are many references in the Bible that connect the Word to cleansing. Nicodemus knew that from his thorough understanding of the OT. Jesus rebuked him for that. Baptism is not a Jewish institution. It is strictly NT. It had nothing to do with the discourse between Nicodemus and Jesus. To force it in there just to justify your preconceived ideas is not rightly dividing the Word of Truth.
Jeremiah makes fun of those people who connect water with the washing away of sin, and Nicodemus knew that:
Jeremiah 2:22 For though thou wash thee with nitre, and take thee much soap, yet thine iniquity is marked before me, saith the Lord GOD.
To him, a Rabbi, a teacher of the OT, baptism was ridiculous. It had nothing to do with salavation. It never did. The way to enter into the covenant in the OT was circumcision, not baptism. Jesus, in no way refers to baptism. Water refers to the Word throughout the Scriptures. I have given you plenty of Scriptures to indicate that. One of them in particular is very clear.
1 Peter 1:23 Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word of God, which liveth and abideth for ever.
Either you believe the Scriptures or you don't! Which is it? The Bible interprets itself.