Dr. Walter
New Member
The passage is saying that the scripture preached before the gospel to Abraham. It's not talking about just any old preaching that was performed before the gospel, but a specific message that was preached to Abraham, and this was done before the gospel. Why does Paul go there? Well, he is contrasting the works of the law with the faith system (the gospel). He goes to the beginning of the Jewish nation, Abraham, and proves that Abraham lived by faith, not by the works of the law. What did the scripture preach to Abraham before the gospel came? It said, "in thee shall all nations of the earth be blessed." God told that to Abraham in Genesis 12:3. Paul equates God speaking to the scripture preaching.
The passage did not say the gospel was preached to Abraham, but that the scripture preached something to Abraham before the gospel.
Abraham, Isaac and Jacob were SYRIANS and married SRYIAN wives thus they were Gentiles by birth. Not until Jacob was named "Israel" and his sons were born were their such a thing as "the children OF ISRAEL." Later the term "Jews" from the name of "Judah" was used synonomous with the "children OF ISRAEL."
Romans 4 is given to show that justification by faith is a GENERIC (not Gentile or Jewish but "the law...of faith) doctrine that preceded the Jewish nation and thus the Jewish laws as is the rite of circumcision.
Genesis 3:15 is the first preaching of the gospel as the promised "seed" and this is merely repeated by God to Abraham. However, between Adam and Abraham there were no scriptures and so this promised "seed" first given by God in the Garden is what Abel and all the prophets between Abel and Moses gave witness to through their offerings and proclamation that simply repeated the gospel promise of Genesis 3:15.