1) Adam may have been the first man to sin, but he was NOT the first living creature to sin.
2) Death entered into the world when Adam sinned but death already existed at a point in time BEFORE Adam sinned, in a world on the face of the earth BEFORE Adam.
This was "cut and pasted" from an article at
http://www.kjvbible.org/. I thought it was interesting
Lacy
Of course it is interesting...I wrote it!
The main point is, it shows that Satan transgressed (sinned) BEFORE Adam. Therefore, if the Scriptures and spiritual laws cannot be broken (i.e. death comes by sin), then death would have come by Satan instead of Adam in the present world if Satan sinned first in this present world. However, Romans 5:12 says:
Romans 5:12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the
world , and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:
Consequently, the only way that the Scriptures remain unbroken is if Satan sinned in a
world before our present one.
I will point out to Helen that there is NOTHING said about Satan's transgression anywhere in the Genesis narrative. At his first appearance on stage at Genesis 3:1 he has already transgressed and is against God at that point. There is nothing in the Bible in Genesis to support Helen's assumption:
It appears that Lucifer/Satan was created guardian cherub of Eden! This would explain, certainly, why Eve was so willing to listen to him. She trusted him. This also indicates VERY strongly that Satan fell only a short time before tempting Eve -- certainly after creation week.
Her argument that Satan fell "certainly after creation week" is NOT supported by the Scriptures. It is only unscripturtal reasoning from a Young Earth POV.
Helen: I would recommend that you review my link:
The Biblical Difference between the words WORLD and EARTH to get a better understanding of the English language on this matter.
In addition, and in reference to your exegesis on the word
replenish and how it should be "fill" at Genesis 1:28 I call your attention to this fact in the translation of the KJV Bible:
Just five verses before rendering
male as "replenish" in Genesis 1:28, the same translators rendered the SAME HEBREW WORD
male as "fill" in Genesis 1:22:
"And God blessed them, saying, Be fruitful, and multiply, and fill the waters in the seas, and let fowl multiply in the earth."
(Genesis 1:22 KJV)
This fact shows that these English translators most certainly knew the subtle differences in meanings in translation of the Hebrew word "male" into English in context, and were well aware of the interpretive implications of using the English word "replenish" in Genesis 1:28 and 9:1. Why did they go to the trouble of rendering the word differently in those two places if they did not intend a subtile difference in meaning? Common sense says that it was done with a purpose, and was not sloppy translation work.
Of course, I have noted that you use the NIV version to attack the KJV, so I'm aware that these points will probably roll off your back like water off a duck, but those who believe and trust their KJV Bible will understand.