If you read my previous statements, your question will be answered. I just got tired of being answered with questions and then seemingly the same question. My 5 year old grandson does that to me as well.
Brother, I don’t mean to appear difficult, nitpicky, or childish when I ask these questions of you. I think that most of us here would agree that Paul’s writings and Matthew’s writings are not contradictions precisely because they are of the same Author
As you well stated, Paul’s authority comes from Jesus, and I am sure that you are not arguing that Matthew’s authority did not. So when Matthew records something as “Jesus said”, we cannot assume it has more authority than when Paul says (as he does in 1 Corinthians 7:10) “But to the married I give instructions, not I, but the Lord”. I think that we can leave this behind and if it helps we can do so as a misunderstanding due to careless reading on my part.
I agree with you that divorce is not the will of God. There is a difference between what is permissible and what is desired, and God clearly has designed marriage to be between one man and one woman for life. Matthew’s is not permission to divorce but rather a statement that one who does put away his wife for reasons of fornication is not guilty of adultery if he remarries. Divorce is always a product of a heart which is hardened or resistant, to an extent, to God.
Paul’s command from the God in 1 Cor. 7:10 agrees with Matthew’s record of Jesus’ teaching. God commands that the wife should not leave her husband – but if she does she is to remain unmarried or reconciled back to her husband. And the husband should likewise not heave his wife.
And Paul’s personal advice, the application of this to the life of the believer who finds him or herself unequally yoked, agrees with God’s command. It is as if Paul is speaking pastorally. The believing partner is not to divorce the unbelieving spouse. But if the unbelieving partner leaves the believer, then the believer is no longer under bondage.
The question, then, is if this “bondage” is a release from the marriage vows and freedom to remarry. Paul’s application could be seen as nullifying the marriage and allowing the believer to remarry or it could be seen as freeing the believer from those bonds of marriage (they are no longer yoked to the unbeliever). But I believe that Paul is speaking within the bounds already given.
In Matthew 19, after Jesus’ words to the Pharisees on marriage, his disciples say “If the relationship of a man with his wife is like this, it is better not to marry.” Jesus response? "Not all men
can accept this statement, but
only those to whom it has been given. For there are eunuchs who were born that way from their mother's womb; and there are eunuchs who were made eunuchs by men; and there are
also eunuchs who made themselves eunuchs for the sake of the kingdom of heaven."
It seems (to me) that Paul is telling the believer that he or she is no longer bound to the unbelieving spouse who leaves. They are no longer yoked, no longer "one". There no longer exists a responsibility or accountability for the other. Paul is not giving permission to remarry in this passage.