Frankly, like I admitted, I do not hold what perhaps Calvinistic thinkers such as Spurgeon (and others) might on the "manipulated will." Rather, I am very consistent with there being NO free will / choice until Christ has given such to that person that they may express what has already taken place in their heart.
You're not being a very good Calvinist! There is also a conflict in your reasoning here. You state that you do not believe in free will or choice, but then claim it is given by "what has ALREADY taken place in their heart". If it has 'already' taken place in their heart, then the ability to freely choose Christ was there before faith was given to him. You're getting warmer!
Unfortunately, many assign MAN as having faith, rather than Faith being instilled in a person that they may express (confess). I find humankind has no such faith ability, nor does the Scriptures indicate that such ability without the direct and purposed work of God already having taken place in the person having been done.
Abraham has been used often as the model of faith. But notice that Abraham had faith FIRST and then demonstrated his faith by offering Isaac. Romans 4 says that first, Abraham believed, and THEN his faith was counted as righteousness. Romans 4:1-3, Hebrews 11:8-10. There's not one single verse in Genesis when this event was first described that says God GAVE faith to Abraham. God never even told Abraham that he would raise Isaac from the dead if Abraham would have followed through. Abraham simply believed that God would (Gen 22:8).
To assume based on Calvinist presupposition that Abraham "must have" been "given faith" is to read Calvinist theology into something that the Bible NEVER says happened.
Man cannot be "involved in the process" other than as reflex response on what has already taken place - which is the proper rendering of Romans.
This is a complete contradiction in Calvinist theology. Calvinist deny that man's faith is a reaction to God, but then assert that the man who preaches the word by which the sinner hears is merely reactionary. If the preachers preaching of the gospel, which is how the sinner hears the word, is merely reactionary, then why can't the sinners faith in God be reactionary to the hearing of the gospel?
Faith can not simply be a "reflex reaction" to what has "already taken place" because the Bible describes that faith as the vehicle by which the person is saved. You are putting the regeneration of the sinner before he has placed his faith in Christ. Faith is not a result of regeneration, regeneration occurs as a result of faith in Christ. There's not one verse in the Bible that demonstrates faith comes AFTER salvation.
See here again, we can disagree, because I do not find "cooperate salvation election" as viable in the Scriptures.
All salvation is individual and is by the clear choice of God. Jesus said,
"43 Jesus answered and said to them, “Do not grumble among yourselves. 44 No one can come to Me unless the Father who sent Me draws him; and I will raise him up on the last day. 45 It is written in the prophets, ‘And they shall all be taught of God.’ Everyone who has heard and learned from the Father, comes to Me."
You may contend to your heart's content over cooperate salvation, but frankly I have never found such to be the evidence in Scriptures. There is ONE exception. That is when God directly states to ISRAEL (that is the political
and spiritual Israel in which the church is united under the millennial rule) shall be saved. There is only one bride of Christ, and there is the only cooperate election / salvation Scriptures indicate - it takes place in the millennium.
Look at how the very beginning of Romans 9 starts:
"3. For I could wish that myself were accursed from Christ for my brethren, my kinsmen
according to the flesh: 4
Who are Israelites; to whom pertaineth the adoption, and the glory, and the covenants, and the giving of the law, and the service of God, and the promises;
Paul is not describing grafted in Gentiles according to promise, he is describing his brethren, Israelites, ACCORDING TO THE FLESH.
Did Christ come through the Gentiles?? "Whose are the fathers,
and of whom as concerning the flesh Christ came, who is over all, God blessed for ever. Amen" 9:5. This shows that Paul is putting Israel as a nation in context.
Paul then makes the argument that " Neither, because they are the seed of Abraham, are they all children: but,
In Isaac shall thy seed be called." What is the contrast here? Is Paul referring to believers who were grafted in at this moment? NO. He is making a distinction between HAGAR and ISAAC because Hagar's children were also of the seed of Abraham, but just because Hagar's posterity came through Abraham, does not automatically give Hagar's children the rights to the Abrahamic promises because "IN ISAAC shall thy seed be called".
Paul sets the boundaries of the context right from the beginning of the chapter that this is referring to corporate Israel.
Using the parable of the sower, the seed falls in all places, but ONLY the good earth seed grows and is harvested. Just who do you think is in charge of the dirt? Man? NO!!!! It is the farmer (God) who decides the roadway, the place to pile up stones, what will remain uncultivated and shallow, and what is prepared soil.
You are making a distinction between a parable that describes the reception of INDIVIDUAL responses to the gospel, and Paul's description of corporate Israel. That parable does not apply to the context of Romans 9. And even in this parable, you are ignoring the fact that "some plant some sow God gives the increase" 1 Cor 3:6. Men preach, and men has to respond by faith, and then God does the salvation work.
The parable of the seed and sower is descriptive of mans REACTIONS to the gospel, not the PROCESS of salvation. There is nothing in this parable that is equating mans will to a seed. That is why this is a PARABLE because it is symbolism a certain reaction, it is not intended to convey the process in which God saves a person which is why the parable offers 4 different types of RESPONSES because the parable is emphasizing the RESPONSE and the TYPE of ground that produces faith, NOT THE PROCESS.
But again, this parable is completely non sequitur to the issue in Romans 9.
Start what you will, but I can state that if you contend you are right on your "very short explanation," you will be found to have faulty reasoning. Just as I have indicated, above.
You can not invoke Calvinist presupposition to force Romans 9 to relate to individual salvation when the context is clear that that is not what Paul is talking about. Not only from what I have shown already, but Paul continues in Romans 10:1 "Brethren, my heart's desire and prayer to God
for Israel is, that they might be saved." If you believe that Israel is the church, you have a problem with the next few verses: is Paul saying that the CHURCH is "going about to establish their own righteousness"? v2-3. If Romans 9-11 was about individuals, or the church, then NONE OF THEM ARE SAVED which begs the question: then how could they be called THE CHURCH or even a Christian ?
In Romans 11:28, Paul makes a clear distinction between Israel and the Gentile believers:
"As concerning the
gospel, they are enemies for your sakes: but as touching the
election, they are beloved for the father's sakes."
Now Calvinists believe that the ELECT are all saved by the gospel. But notice here Paul shows a difference between GOSPEL and ELECT-the 2 are not the same in this passage. The GOSPEL are those saved-Gentiles AND Jews-during the present economy, but because the Jews have been temporarily blinded, they are now CORPORATELY "enemies" of the gospel. However, there will be a REMNANT of believing Jews and THAT REMNANT IS THE ELECT referred to in Romans 11, and you see this elect showing up beginning in Revelation chapter 7:4-8, after those under the GOSPEL (the church) are removed.
" And so all
Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob: For this is my covenant unto
them, when I shall take away their sins." Rom 11:26-27
BTW, you consider the new creation given "after salvation" and I consider it ALL salvation. I don't component out salvation into parcels of this has to be done followed by this, as some have attempted to chart. But that is for another thread
I removed part of the quote for sake of space, and because....
I am not contending with the 2 natures that fight each other. That much is obvious from Galations 5:16, and Romans 7:14-23. What I am contending with is the comment you made that appears to hold that the believers salvation is MAINTAINED by his struggle with the old nature and conquering it through the Holy Spirit. You still have not clarified that issue.
Salvation is complete, and is yet a process at the same time, the process ending in glorification and the redemption of our bodies. The fact that it is yet a process is signified by Paul saying that we are WAITING for it in Romans 8:23-25.
However, the redemption is a done-deal for those who are saved. The process that remains unto glorification is wholly God's. From redemption to glorification, a believer can do nothing to add to salvation or detract from it. "Having BEGUN in the Spirit, are ye now MADE PERFECT by the flesh? Gal 3:3.
But you did not clarify your statement, so I will not list all the reasons I believe in eternal security.