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I am a KJVOs

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Rippon

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there are fully formal translations,
There are no fully formal translations as you have acknowledged several times. If the KJV,NKJV, NASB and ESV use dynamic equivalence sometimes, then they cannot be considered "fully formal" translations.
and there are the mediating versions that tend to be between formal and free, and those pretty much full on DE!
Nas/Nkjv Esv/Csb/Niv Nlv Nlt

No, the mediating versions are not between formal and free. They are between the more form-oriented ones and the functionally equivalent translations. "The Free: ones are on the extreme right side of the chart.

And you said ESV/CSB/NIV NIV/NLT.

Why did you place the NIV in two different slots?
 

Yeshua1

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Oh, yes. I tend to think that the very first writing lesson involved the Father kneeling down in the clay with Adam and Eve, showing them how to use a stick to engrave cuneiform on a tablet of clay which could be fired and kept as a memento of that day...and, later, passed on down to Noah, Abraham, and Moses.
God had His message to us to read before the Kjv!
 

Yeshua1

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There are no fully formal translations as you have acknowledged several times. If the KJV,NKJV, NASB and ESV use dynamic equivalence sometimes, then they cannot be considered "fully formal" translations.


No, the mediating versions are not between formal and free. They are between the more form-oriented ones and the functionally equivalent translations. "The Free: ones are on the extreme right side of the chart.

And you said ESV/CSB/NIV NIV/NLT.

Why did you place the NIV in two different slots?
My mistake, i was trying to list the formal to mediating to free versions.
 

John of Japan

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Thank you.

It's not a confusion. The purpose of the Scriptures...and also, the purpose of Jesus in his Incarnation...was so that we might be able to know the mind and the heart of God, not so that we might be able to win theological "gotcha" games or build ecclesiastical empires.
Okay, that's a better explanation, as long as you realize the meaning of the metaphor of Christ as the Word.

Like it or not, languages change...I'll bet that half of the posters who speak of only using the "Authorized Version of 1611!" have never even actually SEEN the original Authorized Version of 1611! I have; it was virtually unreadable.
Languages do change. I've had many "aha" moments listening to American English after coming back from 33 years n Japan. I've learned quite a few new words and meanings.

I have a reprint of the 1611. It's readable if you remember such things as the "s" being an "f," etc. However, my old Hebrew teacher was walking down the hall one day with one of those when a strong KJV advocate walked up and said, "What's that?" On learning it was a 1611 replica, he excitedly asked to see it--and couldn't read it!
We need to keep that purpose clearly in mind, and to remember when we are studying the Scriptures that we are dealing with a very real Person, not just concepts and doctrines.
Amen to that.
We may be separated from him now...but that separation could end, quite literally, at any time.
"Even so, come, Lord Jesus."
 

Rippon

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There are no fully formal translations as you have acknowledged several times. If the KJV,NKJV, NASB and ESV use dynamic equivalence sometimes, then they cannot be considered "fully formal" translations.


No, the mediating versions are not between formal and free. They are between the more form-oriented ones and the functionally equivalent translations. "The Free ones" are on the extreme right side of the chart.
Y1, why haven't you responded to the above?
 

robycop3

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I believe the KJVO myth has been proven false. GOD IS NOT LIMITED to the KJV in English.

It's fine if one wishes to use only the KJV or any other one version from personal preference, but telling others that the KJV or any other one Bible translation is the ONLY valid Bible translation is TELLING A LIE.

There's NO Scriptural support for that man-made fable.
 
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