I do not believe in sacraments.

[David Lamb]

As a Wesleyan Baptist, I am a Baptist who leans more toward Arminian theology rather than Calvinist theology.

Is "Wesleyan Baptist" a term you have coined for your beliefs, or are there actually churches which go by that name? I have come across this, where a Mormon, Edward Tullidge, described Mormons as "Wesleyan Baptists":

Other early investigators of Mormonism found themselves similarly caught up in these debates. Edward Tullidge, who maintained that the Latter-day Saints “differ very little, excepting in a few peculiarities . . . from the ancient Wesleyans,” nevertheless conceded that, by insisting on immersion, Mormons “are Baptists” and ultimately concluded that they were “Wesleyan Baptists.”

But I am fairly sure you are not a Mormon. Baptists who believe in Arminian doctrines are usually called "General Baptists".

 

[Kai]

However, the grace of God for salvation is conferred upon believers in Christ through water baptism. It is not our doing; it is the gift of God.

HI @Craigbythesea.

This is how many in the Christ of Christ would explain how the gift of salvation is received, so I would like to ask for further clarification.

Do you believe that we are sealed with the Holy Spirit upon our act of faith, or does that not occur until after we are immersed in water?

 

[kyredneck]

I agree that an explanation would be good. I have never heard of "Wesleyan Baptists" so I looked the term up. The first "hit" was an AI overview which started:

""Wesleyan Baptists" is not a standard major Christian denomination, as Wesleyanism (rooted in John Wesley's Methodist theology) and Baptist tradition (rooted in credo-baptism and Calvinist or autonomous roots) historically arose from distinct theological streams."

I think that qualifies as an oxymoron.

 

[Craigbythesea]

HI @Craigbythesea.

This is how many in the Christ of Christ would explain how the gift of salvation is received, so I would like to ask for further clarification.

Do you believe that we are sealed with the Holy Spirit upon our act of faith, or does that not occur until after we are immersed in water?

I believe that we are sealed with the Holy Spirit upon our act of faith.

 

[Ben1445]

I believe that we are sealed with the Holy Spirit upon our act of faith.

Just for clarification, do you consider our act of faith baptism? I have heard it called that.

 

[Logos1560]

In contrast to Baptists, the Church of England makers of the KJV believed in sacraments.

Evidence of the Episcopal doctrinal views of the KJV translators can be seen in the chapter heading to the tenth chapter of 1 Corinthians. Those headings are said to have been the work of Bishop Thomas Bilson, who was one of the last co-editors who could make changes to the 1611. In the 1611 edition, this heading of the tenth chapter of 1 Corinthians stated: “The Sacraments of the Jews are types of ours.”

Is this another example of an Episcopal ecclesiastical term in the 1611 edition and in many later KJV editions until at least the late 1800’s that included the same chapter/contents headings? In his book, Bishop Thomas Bilson claimed that “the delivering or withholding the sacraments is in the pastor’s power and charge” (Perpetual Government, p. 161). Thomas Bilson asserted that “the key of power referred to the sacraments” (p. 281).

Robert Ottley noted that KJV translator Lancelot Andrewes considered the Eucharist "both as a sacrament and as a sacrifice" (Lancelot Andrewes, p. 204). In his Brief Answer to the XVIII Chapter of the first book of Cardinal Perron’s Reply, Lancelot Andrewes wrote: “The Eucharist ever was, and by us is considered, both as a Sacrament, and as a Sacrifice” (Two Answers, p. 19). The Oxford Encyclopedia of the Reformation observed that Lancelot Andrewes taught that "the means of grace are the sacraments" (I, p. 42). Raymond Chapman referred to the “sacramentalism” of Andrewes (Before the King’s, p. 11). The Oxford Dictionary of the Christian Church pointed out that Andrewes "held a high doctrine of the Eucharist, emphasizing that in the sacrament we receive the true body and blood of Christ and constantly using sacrificial language of the rite" (p. 61).

 

[Armchair Apologist]

It depends upon how you define the term. I believe that most theological dictionaries would define a sacrament as an "Outward sign of an inward grace" of which I do not see any scriptural objection to such a definition. This is the way that many of our Reformed friends see it and to be honest, I have no intention of quarreling over the matter.

If you are speaking of Roman Catholicism where they teach that "Grace is channeled to the penitent through the sacraments of the church" then this is where I would take legitimate issue.

This is the reason why most Baptists refer to baptism and the Lord's table as "Ordinances" rather than "Sacraments."