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Deacon said:The word "hint" came as a derivative from the word "named", along the same lines as the NRSV which used "mentioned".
Rob
Not really, although perspective might have something to do with what appears as evil and what is truly evil.npetreley said:I get your point, but that interpretation cannot be correct. Jesus did things that APPEARED evil all the time. He repeatedly deliberately tweaked the noses of the Pharisees by breaking their man-made rules. He was called a glutton and wine-bibber. If the verse meant "avoid any possibility of appearing evil", Jesus would be guilty of breaking scripture.
The full quote was, “The phrase, “not a hint” is translated from the compound disjunctive, “me-de” translated, “must not even” or “but not” in many versions.TCGreek said:1. This is from a previous post of yours: "The phrase, “not a hint” is translated from the compound disjunctive, “me-de” translated, “must not even” or “but not” in many versions."
2. Which is it?
Deacon said:The full quote was, “The phrase, “not a hint” is translated from the compound disjunctive, “me-de” translated, “must not even” or “but not” in many versions.
And “onomazo" a verb meaning "let be named" or “give a name to”
Rob
Correct - its not just an NIV or KJV thing. Its an interpretation thing!npetreley said:I don't think it's just an NIV thing. Keep in mind that the KJV creates the same problem with its translation of 1 Thessalonians 5:22. "Abstain from all appearance of evil."...
franklinmonroe said:Correct - its not just an NIV or KJV thing. Its an interpretation thing!
This is a short verse at the end of the chapter (and the close of the book); that is to say, there is little in the way of context surrounding it that would help with its' explanation. The question is not what this brief sentence says (the words are clear enough, despite Greek wrangling), but rather, what does he actually mean?
This the key: Who is to do the evaluation? Isn't the "appearance" (or "form") of evil in the eye of the beholder? There are at least four candidates: the writer himself (Paul), his audience (the Thessalonian congregation then, and us now), outsiders looking on (perhaps not even believers), and the Lord God. Your perspective on who the 'Evaluator' is will determine your interpretation (and your interpretation will influence your choice of translation). Henry's interpretation (his italics, my underline) --
This is a good means to prevent our being deceived with false doctrines, or unsettled in our faith; for our Saviour has told us (Jn. 7:17), If a man will do his will, he shall know of the doctrine whether it be of God. Corrupt affections indulged in the heart, and evil practices allowed of in the life, will greatly tend to promote fatal errors in the mind; whereas purity of heart, and integrity of life, will dispose men to receive the truth in the love of it. We should therefore abstain from evil, and all appearances of evil, from sin, and that which looks like sin, leads to it, and borders upon it. He who is not shy of the appearances of sin, who shuns not the occasions of sin, and who avoids not the temptations and approaches to sin, will not long abstain from the actual commission of sin.
I’m sorry if I wasn’t clear.TCGreek said:1. While Paul's choice of the more emphatic μηδε is understood, the NIV's translation is a bit misleading.
2. BDAG understands μηδε as not even at this point.
3. The NIV has not even but also adds a hint. There's a degree of difference between not even and a hint with oνομάζω being involved.
You still haven't made things clear.
Jesus NEVER did anything that appeared evil (to Himself, or His Father). The appearance was the judgement of some outside observers.npetreley said:... Jesus did things that APPEARED evil all the time. He repeatedly deliberately tweaked the noses of the Pharisees by breaking their man-made rules...
After Jesus was publically called these things, was there then "a hint" attached to His character?npetreley said:He was called a glutton and wine-bibber...