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In defense of the King James Bible and doctrine

Lewis HB

New Member
Good morning. I think everyone needs to know what KJV only means.
All doctrine comes from Pauls letters, Romans to Philemon only. All the other books are written to the Jew.
The gospels are old testament books. Acts is a transition book. There are seven dispensations.
God talked to and judged different groups in different ways in seven time periods.
a Christian is saved by their free will choice and by grace through faith alone. Romans 10:9-13.

Here you will find information regarding the King James Bible and the Bible Version issue, a subject that should be of the highest concern to the Christian.

The KJV, formerly known as the Authorized Version, first published in the year 1611, is God's word in the English language without error. This site is here to help tell you why.

At one time I read and studied with a New International Version, and I hope that after spending some time learning about this issue that the truth about the multiplicity of versions will be revealed to you as it was to me.

It is important to recognize that this is not a "fundamentalist," "Baptist," or any other "ist" issue. This is a personal heart issue every Christian must settle for themselves. What is your final authority?

Where is a good place to start? If you need convincing that Bible versions don't all say the same thing, start with Westcott and Hort's Magic Marker Binge in the Verse Charts section.

If you are not saved, or unsure about what it means to be saved, see the plan of salvation.

See this website among several others.

 

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
The KJV, formerly known as the Authorized Version, first published in the year 1611, is God's word in the English language without error. This site is here to help tell you why.


See this website among several others.

  • I reject all modern English translations because they are based on corrupt Greek manuscripts and the Westcott-Hort Greek text. Cooper Abrams.

The website that you recommended had the following assertion by Cooper Abrams that is quoted above.

Cooper Abrams' claim is simply not true. All modern English translations are not based on corrupt Greek manuscripts and the Westcott-Hort Greek text. Having read and studied the KJV over 60 years as a believer, I would suggest that the doctrine of truth taught in the KJV itself would not approve nor support the making of that non-true assertion.

English Bible translations such as the 1833 Webster’s Bible, the 1842 revision of the KJV by Baptists, the 1962 Teen-age Version of the Holy Bible by Jay Green, the 1982 NKJV, the 1986 Literal Translation in The Interlinear Bible, the 1990 Modern King James Version, the 1994 21st Century King James Version, the 1998 Third Millennium Bible, the King James 2000 Version, 2000/2013 Jubilee Bible, 2006 New Authorized Version—AV7 NT, the 2010 KJ3 Literal Translation, the 2014 Modern English Version, the 2022 Simplified KJV, Nick Sayers’ 2023 King James Version New Testament, and the 2024 edition of the Modern English Bible can be considered as being based on the same basic multiple original-language texts as the KJV.

KJV-only author David Daniels wrote: “The name I give to these Bibles is ‘King James lookalikes’” (New King James, p. 11).
 

Deacon

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Welcome Lewis,

I have made a habit of using several different versions.

As a youth I used the New Schofield's edition of the KJV.
The KJV version I consult now is Scrivener's 1873 revision called the Cambridge Paragraph Bible.

Which revision of the KJV do you use.

Rob
 

Lewis HB

New Member
Good morning all.
Few people may know that the King James has been translated into Spanish, I don't remember the name of it at the moment. And possibly others.
Please note that God created His Bible in the common language of the Western world in every epoch.
In our case, He knew that English would be the universal language of the end times.
Our opinion, observation and conclusion is that ALL of the new bibles have been created using the corrupted Roman churches latin vulgate and Alexandrian text edited to support new doctrines contrary to what the King James Bible and it's Syrian text origionally stated. The more recent KJV after 1611 was done to keep pace with the changes in the English language while retaining the same doctrine.
Salvation is through free will / personal choice, by grace through faith alone. as in Romans 10:9-13.
 

Mike B

Active Member
Our opinion, observation and conclusion is that ALL of the new bibles have been created using the corrupted Roman churches
latin vulgate and Alexandrian text edited to support new doctrines contrary to what the King James Bible and it's Syrian text origionally stated.

I'm sure Mr. Logos will correct me if I'm wrong, but wasn't the Latin Vulgate consulted
for certain portions of the KJV?
 

Salty

20,000 Posts Club
Administrator

Is King James bible translated into spanish?​

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Is King James bible translated into spanish?​

The short answer is no. However, there is a close relationship between Reina-Valera Version of 1602 and the 1611 Authorized King James Version.
Expanded Answer
The King's translators acknowledged several sources which were used to produce the Authorized Version. These were given, "through the good hand of the Lord." In addition to the standard tools used by translators, the men of the King James Bible used previous English and foreign translations as well. Among them was the Reina-Valera Version of 1602, and justly so, for there is a close relationship between the Valera and the KJV. Not only because they are historical cousins based on the same textual type, but because they are equally respected among their respective peoples. Therefore, it is not surprising that the American Bible Society referred to the Valera as, "the King James Version of the Spanish-speaking world." (Remembering Casiodoro De Reina, Bible Society Record, 1969).
The temptation to compare the two is understandable, and anyone who has studied the Valera would be compelled to do so. Dr. Wilton M. Nelson, a former missionary to Costa Rica, noted that the year 1969, "marked the 400th anniversary of the Reina-Valera version of the Spanish Bible, which can be thought of as the Hispanic-American counterpart of the King James Version." (New Light from the Old Lamp, Latin America Evangelist [American Bible Society Publication, Jan./Feb., 1970], p. 9). This does not mean the two are identical, but they are extremely close. Despite several revisions the Valera has undergone, it remains the closest Spanish Bible to the Authorized Version in text, style, and historical impact.
Those who wish to say the Valera is a Spanish King James Bible will be greatly disappointed. It is not totally identical with the KJV in either text or translation (nor, for that matter, can it be). Even if the texts were one-hundred per cent identical, the translation would not be because of certain idioms presented in all three languages (Greek, English, and Spanish). However, the Valera is closer to the KJV than any other Spanish version on the market and may be considered the equivalent to the KJV in Spanish.
 

Ascetic X

Well-Known Member
Good morning. I think everyone needs to know what KJV only means.
All doctrine comes from Pauls letters, Romans to Philemon only. All the other books are written to the Jew.
The gospels are old testament books. Acts is a transition book. There are seven dispensations.
God talked to and judged different groups in different ways in seven time periods.
But dismissing the gospels as irrelevant to Christians is an unbiblical assertion.

It is wrong to claim that the Lord’s Prayer, the sermon on the mount, the beatitudes, the parables about the kingdom of heaven, the promises about believing and receiving, the healings by Jesus, the Great Commission, etc. have no relevance to us today.

Acts is not a transition away from the gospels, but is a fulfillment and continuation of them.

Paul tells us to let the word of Christ dwell in us richly. Where do we find that word or teaching of Christ? In the gospels.

Colossians 3:16

Let the word of Christ dwell in you richly in all wisdom; teaching and admonishing one another in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing with grace in your hearts to the Lord.


John 15:7

If you remain in Me and My words remain in you, ask whatever you wish, and it will be done for you.



Romans 15:4

For everything that was written in the past was written for our instruction, so that through endurance and the encouragement of the Scriptures, we might have hope.



2 Timothy 3:16,17

All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for instruction, for conviction, for correction, and for training in righteousness,

so that the man of God may be complete, fully equipped for every good work.
 

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Our opinion, observation and conclusion is that ALL of the new bibles have been created using the corrupted Roman churches latin vulgate and Alexandrian text edited to support new doctrines contrary to what the King James Bible and it's Syrian text origionally stated.
Your opinion, observation, and conclusion is incorrect and not true. You have been misinformed.

English Bible translations such as the 1833 Webster’s Bible, the 1842 revision of the KJV by Baptists, the 1962 Teen-age Version of the Holy Bible by Jay Green, the 1982 NKJV, the 1986 Literal Translation in The Interlinear Bible, the 1990 Modern King James Version, the 1994 21st Century King James Version, the 1998 Third Millennium Bible, the King James 2000 Version, 2000/2013 Jubilee Bible, 2006 New Authorized Version—AV7 NT, the 2010 KJ3 Literal Translation, the 2014 Modern English Version, the 2022 Simplified KJV, Nick Sayers’ 2023 King James Version New Testament, and the 2024 edition of the Modern English Bible can be considered as being based on the same basic multiple original-language texts as the KJV.

It is a verifiable fact that the Church of England makers of the KJV borrowed several or even many renderings from the 1582 Roman Catholic Rheims New Testament, which was translated from an edition of Jerome's Latin Vulgate. First-hand testimony and evidence from one of the KJV translators would acknowledge or affirm the use of the 1582 Rheims NT in the making of the KJV.
 

Armchair Apologist

Well-Known Member
Good morning. I think everyone needs to know what KJV only means.
KJV-Only simply means that one believes the King James Version to be superior to all other English translations and therefore believe and use only the KJV translation. There are varying degrees of this belief from one believing that the King James is the best possible translation to the King James being the Only Inspired translation and there is a good bit of fighting between the two groups.
All doctrine comes from Pauls letters, Romans to Philemon only. All the other books are written to the Jew.
The gospels are old testament books. Acts is a transition book. There are seven dispensations.
God talked to and judged different groups in different ways in seven time periods.
This is rigid, classic dispensationalism and is followed by rigid, classical dispensationalists whether or not they happen to be KJV-Only. There are also KJV-Only types which happen to be moderately or not dispensational at all.
a Christian is saved by their free will choice and by grace through faith alone. Romans 10:9-13.
Such is typical of many IFB, KJV-only types and rabid "Anti-Calvinism" is a common character trait among this group but there are some Calvinists who happen to be KJV-Only as well. I am not sure you would consider such to be your "brother" or your sworn enemy?

However, no one is saved because they made a "free-will choice." Perhaps you should think this through and revise this to be more in line with your King James Bible?
Here you will find information regarding the King James Bible and the Bible Version issue, a subject that should be of the highest concern to the Christian.

The KJV, formerly known as the Authorized Version, first published in the year 1611, is God's word in the English language without error. This site is here to help tell you why.
Is that why there were several revisions following after 1611? Which revision do you use? I personally prefer the Cambridge 1769 revision myself.
At one time I read and studied with a New International Version, and I hope that after spending some time learning about this issue that the truth about the multiplicity of versions will be revealed to you as it was to me.
I'm not a fan of the NIV, the ESV is my "Alexandrian" version of choice although I do consult other versions as well along with the underlying Greek text.
It is important to recognize that this is not a "fundamentalist," "Baptist," or any other "ist" issue. This is a personal heart issue every Christian must settle for themselves. What is your final authority?
If you believe this to be a "Personal Heart Issue" then are you respectful of those who come to a different conclusion regarding this matter? Do you believe that one can be saved if one preaches any other version aside from the King James?
Where is a good place to start? If you need convincing that Bible versions don't all say the same thing, start with Westcott and Hort's Magic Marker Binge in the Verse Charts section.
Been there, done that, got the T-shirt but thanks anyway.
If you are not saved, or unsure about what it means to be saved, see the plan of salvation.
Thank you for your concern, I first came to a saving faith in Christ back in 1981. The gospel of Christ is the main thing.
 

Armchair Apologist

Well-Known Member
I'm sure Mr. Logos will correct me if I'm wrong, but wasn't the Latin Vulgate consulted
for certain portions of the KJV?
It is my understanding that the "Johannine Comma" (1 Jn 5:7) was back-translated from Latin to Greek because it was not found in any of the texts Erasmus consulted when compiling the Received Greek Text (Textus Receptus) of which the KJV was ultimately translated.
 
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