PastorSBC1303
Active Member
His logic may be sound, but it is misplaced. He is inserting the word "divorce" into the text of 1 Timothy. As Dr. Bob posted earlier that is a terrible error. Man reads divorce into the text of 1 Tim, it was not placed there by the Holy Spirit.
Therefore he is being inconsistent, as many are on this issue. They hold men to qualifications that are not in the text.
If they want to be consistent, then if a man who is divorced before salvation is disqualifed, so is a man who was given to drunkenness, a lover of money, and all the other qualifications before salvation. And I would venture to say that there is not a pastor out there who is qualified by those standards.
Therefore he is being inconsistent, as many are on this issue. They hold men to qualifications that are not in the text.
If they want to be consistent, then if a man who is divorced before salvation is disqualifed, so is a man who was given to drunkenness, a lover of money, and all the other qualifications before salvation. And I would venture to say that there is not a pastor out there who is qualified by those standards.