Firstly, we need to distinguish between the purpose and scope of God's moral law, and Earthly/ criminal law:
But your OP says this....
Today there is a lot of judicial hurdling to keep people who have committed a crime out of prison or off death row.
You rightly bemoan the
abuse of the system....but just because it is obviously abused...does that mean that we should "throw out the baby with the bathwater?" The question is only whether or not there are any just reasons (criminally) that society might want to show some measure of clemency to
certain accused....
However based on scripture where does it teach that judicial law is to show mercy to someone just for the purpose of showing mercy? Where are the provisions for a court to show mercy when the people who were wronged desire justice and not mercy?
I would not think that we should ignore the desire of the wronged party....that is why there are victim impact statements etc....but lest the court be merely a medium for revenge as opposed to justice consider this...
Notice the woman taken in adultery:
She (according to the "criminal law" of the day) Could very well have been rightly stoned....It would
not have been unjust.
Notice: they were trying to trap Jesus (as per their usual
modus operandi) to Get Jesus, whose heart they realized would bend towards mercy.... to defy the letter of the law...which Jesus, still as yet (recognizing the validity of the law to that point) Would not do.
Christ recognized this, but Christ used...well a
technicality as it were to get out of having her stoned....
He says this:
"Let him who is without sin cast the first stone..."
He does NOT deny the
legal justification to stone her....
Notice:
Once they leave, HE (who was without sin), and could very well have casted the first stone.....says, "where are thine accusers?" And then He says...neither then do
I condemn you...Go and sin no more.
I daresay, if we have NO ability to temper justice with mercy....we are in a sad state indeed....