This God's establishing His kingdom in this age in a mystery form - did God decree to do so only after Israel refused Christ or did God decree it before the ages?They(Israel) refused it, even after he had provided the means for the born again entrance into it where sins were washed away and God instead established his kingdom in this age in a mystery form and is ruling over his subjects in an invisible person, the Holy Ghost, while the King is absent.
(I know you're prone to writing lengthy responses and i'm absolutely fine with that as long as you begin with a direct answer and separate your posts with key headings? Just by way of request and not obligation.)
Where are you getting this from? If anything, I look at say Col 1:26 and I'm seeing that the mystery is hidden from the ages - being hidden from then does not imply it wasn't decreed before the ages, right?Now, election for both Jews and gentiles in this age is not before the foundation of the world like the Reformed claims, but is "since" the foundation of the world.
Sure, it was not manifested/explained then but there were still prophecies in the OT about this mystery that are now explained by the Spirit, right? How do you see Gen 12:3 as, if not the prophetic Gospel of Christ to the Gentiles too?The reason it is a mystery form is because this kingdom form is not a subject of the OT prophets..