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Is Baptism the New Circumcision?

Wittenberger

New Member
One might as well baptise their pet cat as sprinkle an infant. They have the same level of understanding of the Gospel. Matthew 28 makes the order quite clear. If Lutherans were going to bother to leave the RCC five hundred years ago, then leave it, including infant baptism. Otherwise, why bother? You can come up with all the warped theories you want from the OT, infant baptism has no merit and is not Scriptural.

Dear brother,

Did you read all the comments on this thread or just jump onto the last few? We are currently discussing the meaning/purpose of circumcision and then once we establish what the meaning of circumcision is then we can move on to baptism and see if there is a connection.

Please read ALL the comments in order before commenting. I would like to continue hearing your view.
 

Wittenberger

New Member
I know that you are quoting Dr. Augustus Hopkins Strong who is quoting Alfred Edersheim. You said so in your post.

But, could you please quote from the Bible where any Gentiles were "taking their children into the covenant of God by baptizing them".

Or could you show anywhere in the Bible where it is taught that "since baptism and acceptance into the covenant of God was beneficial, and leaving a child without it harmful, baptism of infants was required."

I don't see where Gentiles becoming Christians would be practicing this or that Christians who were once rabbis would be teaching this because there are too many citations in the Bible where it is explicitly instructed that confession, repentance, an encounter with Christ/Holy Spirit and faith must precede baptism.

How could Jesus refute a practice that didn't exist?


Dear Sister Scarlett,

I know that you are eager to figuratively "crush" me on the doctrine of infant baptism.

But could you please respond to my position on the meaning and purpose of circumcision before jumping to denouncing me regarding infant baptism?

Volumes of historical records record that the Jews in Christ's time were baptizing proselyte Gentile infants to bring them into the Jewish faith. Just because it isn't mentioned in the Bible does not mean that the Jews were not doing it.

For example if the Bible doesn't mention all the details of Herod's reign in Jerusalem, does that mean we can't believe historical records that do say what he did?

Jews in Christ's time were baptizing the infants of Gentile converts to cleanse them of their Gentile impurity and bring them into the Jewish faith. I'm not saying that just because the Jews did this then automatically that means that Christian infant baptism is scriptural.

However, I do think that what happened in the Jewish synagogues had very significant influence on the early Church. The Christian Jews in Jerusalem continued to worship in the synagogue, continued celebrating Jewish festivals, and continued the practice of circumcision long after Pentecost, after which circumcision was no longer required.

If the Jews of Jesus day brought the infants of Gentiles into the Jewish faith by baptism, isn't it possible that this Jewish practice also had an influence on early Jewish Christian practice?

If baptizing the infants of Gentile converts, which was the practice of the proselytizing scribes and Pharisees of Christ's day, was against God's law, why doesn't Christ condemn this practice?

If Christ knew that the current Jewish practice of converting entire households of Gentiles included baptizing all of them, including the infants, why didn't he make an issue of this false practice, during any of his teachings?

And why if this conversion process was so wrong, why don't the Scriptures record the disciples/apostles speaking out and telling the Jews that the conversion of their children was different in the New Covenant than in the Old Covenant? In the Old Covenant a convert could bring his infants into the covenant with him, but in the new covenant, (according to credo-baptists) the infants had to wait, grow up, and make a decision for themselves.

If the apostles took the time to tell the Jewish Christians that circumcision was no longer necessary, why wouldn't they also mention that proselyte infant baptism was no longer acceptable?

Isn't it much more likely that the reason that Christ, the apostles, and all the writers of the New Testament, never speak out against this Jewish infant baptism, is that it WAS ACCEPTABLE.

That is why there is no specific mention of infant baptism because it wasn't necessary to point it out. Everyone knew that the old paradigm of proselyte family conversion continued into the new covenant!

Everyone also knew that it wasn't the sign (circumcision or baptism) that saved. It is the promise of God given at the time of the sign that saves. The child then grows up and receives the benefits of the promise (eternal life) by a personal faith in Christ.

The sign has never saved! It is the promise given at the time of the sign that saves, the recipient receives the benefit of the promise (eternal life) once he/she reaches the age of discernment and places his/her personal faith in Jesus Christ.
 

Wittenberger

New Member
I know that you are quoting Dr. Augustus Hopkins Strong who is quoting Alfred Edersheim. You said so in your post.

But, could you please quote from the Bible where any Gentiles were "taking their children into the covenant of God by baptizing them".

Or could you show anywhere in the Bible where it is taught that "since baptism and acceptance into the covenant of God was beneficial, and leaving a child without it harmful, baptism of infants was required."

I don't see where Gentiles becoming Christians would be practicing this or that Christians who were once rabbis would be teaching this because there are too many citations in the Bible where it is explicitly instructed that confession, repentance, an encounter with Christ/Holy Spirit and faith must precede baptism.

How could Jesus refute a practice that didn't exist?




I still would like to hear a response from one of the credo-baptists on how the verse in Colossians which talks about baptism being the circumcision of Christ doesn't really mean "dipping/immersion in water". I thought Baptists believe that Greek word always means dipping/immersion in real water.

If you can read into that verse "baptism of the Spirit" then the Mormons and JW's have a right to read into that verse whatever meaning they want to give it. The Pentecostals can read into it that it means the "baptism of speaking in tongues".

When the word baptism is used in the NT it always means "dipping/immersion in water" unless specifically stated otherwise!

Yes, you read that right! A Lutheran is saying that baptism means dipping/immersion in water.
 
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33ad

New Member
No where in the bible do you see anyone wait until they are at the age of reason

While you see entire households (including babies) be baptized and new adult believers

I was saved on the cross
I was saved when I was baptized
I am being saved with gods grace he gives me daily
I will be saved when our lord comes again
 

Moriah

New Member
I still would like to hear a response from one of the credo-baptists on how the verse in Colossians which talks about baptism being the circumcision of Christ doesn't really mean "dipping/immersion in water". I thought Baptists believe that Greek word always means dipping/immersion in real water.

Circumcision is about being set apart.

When we have a circumcised heart, it means the Spirit sets us apart. We are different; we are set apart from other people because we have the Holy Spirit.

Romans 2:29 No, a man is a Jew if he is one inwardly; and circumcision is circumcision of the heart, by the Spirit, not by the written code. Such a man’s praise is not from men, but from God.

Circumcision of the flesh was a seal of faith.

We now receive a seal, the Holy Spirit, because of faith in Jesus Christ.

Ephesians 1:13 And you also were included in Christ when you heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation. Having believed, you were marked in him with a seal, the promised Holy Spirit,

Ephesians 4:30 And do not grieve the Holy Spirit of God, with whom you were sealed for the day of redemption.

Romans 4:11 And he received the sign of circumcision, a seal of the righteousness that he had by faith while he was still uncircumcised. So then, he is the father of all who believe but have not been circumcised, in order that righteousness might be credited to them.

Philippians 3:3 For it is we who are the circumcision, we who worship by the Spirit of God, who glory in Christ Jesus, and who put no confidence in the flesh—

Colossians 2:11 In him you were also circumcised, in the putting off of the sinful nature, not with a circumcision done by the hands of men but with the circumcision done by Christ,

Colossians 2:11 is about living by the Spirit and not the flesh, living by the Spirit given to us by Christ.

Infants do not live by the Spirit and put off the flesh. Infants do not yet understand. Faith comes from hearing the message, being taught, convinced, and persuaded. See Romans 10:14; Colossians 1:5, 7; 2 Timothy 3:14; and 2 Corinthians 5:11.
 
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Wittenberger

New Member
Circumcision is about being set apart.

When we have a circumcised heart, it means the Spirit sets us apart. We are different; we are set apart from other people because we have the Holy Spirit.

Romans 2:29 No, a man is a Jew if he is one inwardly; and circumcision is circumcision of the heart, by the Spirit, not by the written code. Such a man’s praise is not from men, but from God.

Circumcision of the flesh was a seal of faith.

We now receive a seal, the Holy Spirit, because of faith in Jesus Christ.

Ephesians 1:13 And you also were included in Christ when you heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation. Having believed, you were marked in him with a seal, the promised Holy Spirit,

Ephesians 4:30 And do not grieve the Holy Spirit of God, with whom you were sealed for the day of redemption.

Romans 4:11 And he received the sign of circumcision, a seal of the righteousness that he had by faith while he was still uncircumcised. So then, he is the father of all who believe but have not been circumcised, in order that righteousness might be credited to them.

Philippians 3:3 For it is we who are the circumcision, we who worship by the Spirit of God, who glory in Christ Jesus, and who put no confidence in the flesh—

Colossians 2:11 In him you were also circumcised, in the putting off of the sinful nature, not with a circumcision done by the hands of men but with the circumcision done by Christ,

Colossians 2:11 is about living by the Spirit and not the flesh, living by the Spirit given to us by Christ.

Infants do not live by the Spirit and put off the flesh. Infants do not yet understand. Faith comes from hearing the message, being taught, convinced, and persuaded. See Romans 10:14; Colossians 1:5, 7; 2 Timothy 3:14; and 2 Corinthians 5:11.

So if circumcision was a seal of faith; a seal of faith for the faith that the recipient had already professed toward God, why did God instruct Abraham to give this seal to infants? How can infants give a verbal profession of faith if that is what you require before anyone can receive the seal or mark of God?

Your position on circumcision works for Abraham. It doesn't work for his infant children, or the infant children of his descendants.

The covenant was a promise to give to Abraham's infants the benefits that were given to their father Abraham. The promise was given an external reality in the mark/seal of circumcision. However the promise of eternal salvation was not appropriated by the infant until he grew up and professed a personal faith and obedience to God.
 

Scarlett O.

Moderator
Moderator
I know that you are eager to figuratively "crush" me on the doctrine of infant baptism.

But could you please respond to my position on the meaning and purpose of circumcision before jumping to denouncing me regarding infant baptism?

I have no desire to crush anyone. I thought I was finished with this topic. I don't know what else I can say that hasn't been said.

If Old Testament circumcision is what made those men righteous before God, then we can just rip out Hebrews 11 from our Bibles, because apparently it wasn't their faith that made them righteous.


If baptizing the infants of Gentile converts, which was the practice of the proselytizing scribes and Pharisees of Christ's day, was against God's law, why doesn't Christ condemn this practice?

If Christ knew that the current Jewish practice of converting entire households of Gentiles included baptizing all of them, including the infants, why didn't he make an issue of this false practice, during any of his teachings?

Gosh, you've used a lot of "if's" just to get to this statement. The Pharisees had a lot practices that the Bible doesn't record Jesus' condemnation of.

I've been taught by people smarter than me and I've read from many commentators that the Pharisee added more than 600 restrictions to God's Law making things so hard for people. Jesus didn't address all 600 of these false practices or at least the Bible doesn't record His individual condemnation of them.

In the Sermon on the Mount, He addresses just a mere handful. His condemnation of the legalism of the Pharisees didn't seem to be about nitpicking them to death about each individual and possible scenario - that was THEIR weapon of choice in nitpicking Jesus about all the false jots and tittles.

To me, His condemnation of them was a deeper one of exposing their hard-heartedness and lack of love for God and others.

But to use your own logic - just because the Bible doesn't mention Jesus condemning the Jewish practice of baptizing Gentile babies doesn't mean that He didn't. :saint:

John, the Beloved, said that if all the things that Jesus said, did, and accomplished in His human form on this earth were written down, then all the books in the world couldn't hold it.

And why if this conversion process was so wrong, why don't the Scriptures record the disciples/apostles speaking out and telling the Jews that the conversion of their children was different in the New Covenant than in the Old Covenant? In the Old Covenant a convert could bring his infants into the covenant with him, but in the new covenant, (according to credo-baptists) the infants had to wait, grow up, and make a decision for themselves.

My goodness, could it be because circumcision was NOT about conversion? Hmmm.... If circumcision was about conversion, then the Old Testament men were converted to righteous at 8 days old. As I said before - countless Jewish men circumcised just as commanded no more loved God than they would have loved a dead camel. How many circumcised Jewish men from the Old Testament were NOT worshippers of God, but idolaters and haters of God and were of their Father, the devil. Circumcision was not about conversion.



They all had to make a conscience decision as a young person or adult. And the circumcision of the flesh had no bearing in that choice. Circumcision was commanded and had to be obeyed. But it did not save.
  • "Choose you this day whom you will serve ....Joshua"
  • "Whoever is on the LORD's side, come to me ...... Moses"
  • "How long will you waver between two opinions? If the LORD is God, then follow Him. If Baal is god, then follow him. ...... Elijah"
  • "Others may walk in the name of their god, but we will walk in the name of the LORD our God forever ..... Micah"
  • "Your people will be my people and your God my God ..... Ruth"
I'm not sure what else I can say.
 
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Michael Wrenn

New Member
Brother, I know that you want so badly for Old Testament circumcision of infants to be associated with salvation and grace so that you can make the connection for infant baptism today to be vital and just as important, but it just isn't so. Even if we were to say that babies under the old covenant who were born into a Israelite community were circumcised signifying them as Jewish, you still can't make the connection to the thinking that babies in the new covenant era who are born into a Christian community should be baptized signifying them as Christian.

The leap cannot be made.

Jew and others in the Old Testament were not counted as righteous because of their circumcision. They were counted as righteous because of their faith. See all of Hebrews 11. In fact, Hebrews 11 says that these Old Testament people who HAD faith believed in the promise of a Messiah and understood that this world was not their home, but that heaven was. They looked forward - yes, in mystery and through a veil - to God's salvation, even if they couldn't define it.



A man's circumcision of his flesh contributed nothing to his spiritual nature. The Holy Spirit was in no way the instigator of making one desire circumcision. Some men who were circumcised loved God and obeyed him and some defied him terribly will burn in hell for all eternity for it - circumcised and all. Good gravy, just read the books of Exodus - Judges alone. Circumcision of the flesh did not produce faith, precede faith, nor usher in faith.

In fact, when Moses told them that they needed a circumcision of the heart, he told them that God could only do that. Deuteronomy 30:6. The cutting of the male flesh could not usher in grace. It was important and commanded. But not to save or be a part of salvation. It was to set God's people apart. But even countless members of those set apart never received the grace and salvation of God.

On the other hand, baptism in the New Testament IS closely associated with one's faith and salvation. It ALWAYS was a symbol OF one's faith, coming AFTER faith, and was a testimony of saving grace IN Christ and was/is an outward sign of an instigation OF the Holy Spirit to submit to God's saving grace.

Also, Colossians 2:11-12 explains that it's not that baptism replaces physical circumcision, but that baptism FOLLOWS the circumcision of the heart which can be accomplished by Christ alone.





Please read Hebrews 11 in it's entirety. There is no mention of physical circumcision in Old Testament faith - true faith - that counted for righteousness.

This is an excellent post, Scarlett! I find myself saying that quite often to you. :)
 

Michael Wrenn

New Member
No where in the bible do you see anyone wait until they are at the age of reason

While you see entire households (including babies) be baptized and new adult believers

I was saved on the cross
I was saved when I was baptized
I am being saved with gods grace he gives me daily
I will be saved when our lord comes again

There is absolutely no evidence in the NT of any babies being baptized.

If you are depending on your water baptism to save you, you are still in your sins.
 

Michael Wrenn

New Member
If reason is listened to, it will undoubtedly appear that baptism is properly administered to infants as a thing due to them. The Lord did not anciently bestow circumcision upon them without making them partakers of all the things signified by circumcision. He would have deluded his people with mere imposture, had he quieted them with fallacious symbols: the very idea is shocking. I is distinctly declares, that the circumcision of the infant will be instead of a seal of the promise of the covenant. But if the covenant remains firm and fixed, it is no less applicable to the children of Christians in the present day, than to the children of the Jews under the Old Testament. ~Calvin

Getting your doctrine from Calvin, history's greatest example of an Old Testament Christian? Might I suggest the New Testament instead?
 

Moriah

New Member
So if circumcision was a seal of faith; a seal of faith for the faith that the recipient had already professed toward God, why did God instruct Abraham to give this seal to infants? How can infants give a verbal profession of faith if that is what you require before anyone can receive the seal or mark of God?
I have already posted why earlier.
God made the promise to the forefathers and their descendents.
Even when the Jews did not obey God, they were still considered God's people.
Your position on circumcision works for Abraham. It doesn't work for his infant children, or the infant children of his descendants.The covenant was a promise to give to Abraham's infants the benefits that were given to their father Abraham. The promise was given an external reality in the mark/seal of circumcision. However the promise of eternal salvation was not appropriated by the infant until he grew up and professed a personal faith and obedience to God.
Those who believed in God in the Old Testament did not each individually receive the Holy Spirit, as believers do now in the New Testament.
We are not God’s children anymore as the Jews were because of ancestry and works of the law like circumcision and the observance of special days, etc. We are God’s children by faith in Jesus and obedience to his teachings. Infants cannot do those things.
 
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Michael Wrenn

New Member
Wittenberger,


Think about it…there are plain and simple rules for infant circumcision. However, there is no mention of infant baptism.

Think about this also, if Jesus’ disciples were baptizing infants, then why did the disciples try to send the little children away when people brought them?

Why do the scriptures say the people brought little children for Jesus to touch and did not bring them to be baptized?

Paedobaptists use that scripture as a proof text for infant baptism; in fact, it is just the opposite. Jesus blessed the little children; He did not baptize them. This scripture is a good basis for infant dedication, but not baptism.
 

Moriah

New Member
Paedobaptists use that scripture as a proof text for infant baptism; in fact, it is just the opposite. Jesus blessed the little children; He did not baptize them. This scripture is a good basis for infant dedication, but not baptism.

That is right. I have found that fact with many scriptures used to try to support false doctrines…the very scriptures they use can be carefully studied to show their error.
 
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Thinkingstuff

Active Member
1. Circumcision was not a part of the Mosaic covenant, but of the Abrahamic covenant.
Yes this is true.
It had a much larger application than the former. It was closely connected with justification by faith and the promise of the coming Savior.
ok.
2. The circumcision of Abraham, according to Paul in Romans 4:11, was a seal of the righteousness of faith that he had before he was circumcised.
I've been trying to say that forever.
God told Abraham to give this seal to his children/infants so that God could make them partakers of the privileges of His covenant in their early infancy.
Yes even now as we are partakers in Christ's divine life through baptism.

3. Is there any connection between circumcision and baptism? The apostle Paul says that there is, in Colossians 2:11: “ In whom (Christ) you were also circumcised with a circumcision not made with hands, in the putting off of the body of the flesh, in the circumcision of Christ; having been buried with him in baptism, wherein you were also raised with him through faith.”
Yes I think that passage is clear.

The literal, plain, grammatically correct interpretation of that phrase in that verse is that baptism IS the circumcision of Christ.
Yes this is true.
4. Baptists believe that circumcision was simply an external sign of an external union with a national congregation, to secure the separation of the Jews from all other nations, and their unity as a people. Baptism, on the other hand, they say, is an external sign of an inward spiritual grace already wrought in the heart.
Yes hense the term "Believer's Baptism" Though baptism was never called "believers baptism" in the NT but just Baptism. Certainly believers were baptized but never was it called "believers baptism" in the NT.

However, circumcision was not part of the Mosaic covenant, but of the Abrahamic covenant, and was therefore not limited to Israel. The various nations which descended from Abraham use it, not just Israel.
Yes as we can see by the mix of people being delivered out of Egypt and they were required to be circumcized.

Abraham was the first man circumcised.
Possibly. Circumcision happens in other parts of the world to include Female circumcision. Abraham was the first person to enter into a covenant with God requiring circumcision.
Therefore his circumcision sets the precedent and the underlying meaning of this act.
And forshadows the NT people who are called out (ecclesia) into a special covenant with God as a family and community. Thus Christianity is not just and individual faith but a community faith lived in community not solitarily.
His circumcision was an external sign of an inward spiritual grace: “to be a God unto thee and to thy seed after thee”. According to Paul the profit of the circumcision was that “they were intrusted with the oracles of God.” Romans 3:1-2
Yes they were.
So it is clear that circumcision was an external sign of an inward spiritual grace!
I don't think baptist would have a problem with the very last statement. However, to say that baptism confered grace to the one being baptized is too much for baptist.
 

The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
1. Circumcision was not a part of the Mosaic covenant, but of the Abrahamic covenant. It had a much larger application than the former.


I read all your posts and I believe Scarlet has most ably responded and demonstrated your position is erroneous. However, I will comment on your post.

In the above artificial distinction you have made there is a big problem. Abraham, not Moses is regarded by the Jews as the father of Israel. Circumcision therefore to all his household, including Ishmael and Esau is consistent with the promise of a nation from his own loins. So the idea that it is "much larger application than the former" is simply incorrect.


It was closely connected with justification by faith and the promise of the coming Savior.

The connection is made crystal clear. It's only connection, its only value is an external "sign" of "the faith" already in possession. Colossians 2:12 makes it clear that it is a sign of a REGENERATED BELIEVING heart. Even the Old Testament (as you quoted) makes it clear it is the sign of a REGENERATED believing heart. It is not a sign of faith not yet received but faith already received. This leads us to infant male circucmision and I will make that point next.

2. The circumcision of Abraham, according to Paul in Romans 4:11, was a seal of the righteousness of faith that he had before he was circumcised. God told Abraham to give this seal to his children/infants so that God could make them partakers of the privileges of His covenant in their early infancy.

What you don't seem to grasp is that a "sign" is a figure and the writer of hebrews claims that there were many such signs under the Old Covenant. For example, sacrifices are called a "shadow" and such sacrifices preceded both the Abrahamic and Mosaic covenants did they not (Gen. 4)??? Yes, they did. But they are still but a "shadow." A "shadow" only provides FORM but does not provide SUBSTANCE (Heb. 10:1) and the "FORM" cannot obtain anything much less literally remit sins (Heb. 10:4). The substance is found only in what casts the shadow - which is Jesus Christ (Col. 2:16-17) and it as in circucumcision, such "signs" avail only those whose faith is ALREADY in the substance - Acts 10:43.

Circumcision of infant males at 8 days old is simply a more expanded "shadow" or type even under the Old Covenant. Remember, jesus told Nicodemus that he must be "BORN AGAIN" as an old man? Regardless of the age when faith embraces the substance of shadows there is a BIRTH of a SPIRITUAL CHILD. The circumcision of 8 day old Jewish male infants pictures the very exact same thing as the circumcision of Abraham. The doctrine of the sign is expounded in Abraham whereas the more expanded doctrine is visualized in the infant circumcision which can be directly applied also to Abraham, because when Abraham was spiritually transformed from a Heathen idolatrous worshipper in Ur of the Chaldees to a believer in the promise of a coming redeemer "seed" (Gal. 3:17) he was at that precise moment of transformation became a spiritual infant in the kingdom of God needing to grow and mature spiritually from that point forward.

If you have not understood what I have said, then let me say it clearly - infant circucmison is a "shadow" of new birth experienced at the point of conversion from unbelief to belief and so infant circumcision is merely a more expanded "sign" of the very same truth.

3. Is there any connection between circumcision and baptism? The apostle Paul says that there is, in Colossians 2:11: “ In whom (Christ) you were also circumcised with a circumcision not made with hands, in the putting off of the body of the flesh, in the circumcision of Christ; having been buried with him in baptism, wherein you were also raised with him through faith.”


The problem with your interpretation is that it is based upon jerking this text out of its overall context. Look at the scriptures that precede it as well as follow it.

The preceding context sets the stage for the reader to realize the COMPLETENESS in Christ by faith without ADDITIONS -

7 Rooted and built up in him, and stablished in the faith, as ye have been taught, abounding therein with thanksgiving.
8 Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ.
9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.
10 And ye are complete in him, which is the head of all principality and power
:

Beginning in verse 11 to verse 17 that completeness is without the "shadow" of the Old Testament ceremonial laws including circumcision as the substance (Christ and his completed work on the cross) makes the "shadow" obselete:

11 In whom also ye are circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, in putting off the body of the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ:
12 Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead.
13 ¶ And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses;
14 Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;
15 And having spoiled principalities and powers, he made a shew of them openly, triumphing over them in it.
16 ¶ Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holyday, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days:
17 Which are a shadow of things to come; but the body is of Christ.


Verses 11-13 deal particular with both circumcision and baptism and the one thing they have in common with each other as signs and that is the death or cutting off the flesh and new life. Both externally are signs of the cutting off of the sinful nature - the old flesh in regard to the NEW LIFE of the INWARD MAN.

Note his langauge in verse 11 as he introduces the new inward cirucumcision made without hands - meaning something only God can do as no human hands can accomplish this internal miracle of God. Romans 4:11 proves this work without hands does not occur simeltaneous with the external act. The external was a picture of what only God can do and thus the external NEVER accomplished what it pictured and neither does baptism.

What accomplishes this is "faith" that had to precede both circucmision and baptism as demonstrated in Abraham and so like circumision, baptism follows this internal act of God.

12 Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead.
13 ¶ And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses;

Baptism like circumcision externally signifies identification with Christ's death to sin and His resurrected regenerative life but it is "through" internal "faith of (subjective genitive - produced by) the operation of God" from which our spiritual life originates and from which we actually obtain remission of sins, rather than from external acts of baptism or circumcision. The same power (operation) of God that raised Jesus from the grave is the same power behind our faith which results in spiritual life and remission of sins.

Or let me paraphrase it this way. It is through baptism and circumcision that we SIGNIFY identification with death to sin and spiritual life, but it is through faith produced by the power of God, (the same power that literally raised Jesus from the Grave) we are quickened (made alive/born again) together with him and by which we literally receive remission of sins.

Paul cannot mean that faith produces eternal life and remission of sin CONTEMPORANEOUS with the act of circumcision or baptism as Romans 4:11 debunks that interpretation as false. Only that both FOLLOW inward conversion as an external "sign" of something already "had" previous to the ceremonial act. Both outwardly IDENTIFY the believer with the substance of faith - Christ - Acts 10:43 - and salvation obtained by the power of God not through shadows.
 
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Wittenberger

New Member
I read all your posts and I believe Scarlet has most ably responded and demonstrated your position is erroneous. However, I will comment on your post.

In the above artificial distinction you have made there is a big problem. Abraham, not Moses is regarded by the Jews as the father of Israel. Circumcision therefore to all his household, including Ishmael and Esau is consistent with the promise of a nation from his own loins. So the idea that it is "much larger application than the former" is simply incorrect.




The connection is made crystal clear. It's only connection, its only value is an external "sign" of "the faith" already in possession. Colossians 2:12 makes it clear that it is a sign of a REGENERATED BELIEVING heart. Even the Old Testament (as you quoted) makes it clear it is the sign of a REGENERATED believing heart. It is not a sign of faith not yet received but faith already received. This leads us to infant male circucmision and I will make that point next.



What you don't seem to grasp is that a "sign" is a figure and the writer of hebrews claims that there were many such signs under the Old Covenant. For example, sacrifices are called a "shadow" and such sacrifices preceded both the Abrahamic and Mosaic covenants did they not (Gen. 4)??? Yes, they did. But they are still but a "shadow." A "shadow" only provides FORM but does not provide SUBSTANCE (Heb. 10:1) and the "FORM" cannot obtain anything much less literally remit sins (Heb. 10:4). The substance is found only in what casts the shadow - which is Jesus Christ (Col. 2:16-17) and it as in circucumcision, such "signs" avail only those whose faith is ALREADY in the substance - Acts 10:43.

Circumcision of infant males at 8 days old is simply a more expanded "shadow" or type even under the Old Covenant. Remember, jesus told Nicodemus that he must be "BORN AGAIN" as an old man? Regardless of the age when faith embraces the substance of shadows there is a BIRTH of a SPIRITUAL CHILD. The circumcision of 8 day old Jewish male infants pictures the very exact same thing as the circumcision of Abraham. The doctrine of the sign is expounded in Abraham whereas the more expanded doctrine is visualized in the infant circumcision which can be directly applied also to Abraham, because when Abraham was spiritually transformed from a Heathen idolatrous worshipper in Ur of the Chaldees to a believer in the promise of a coming redeemer "seed" (Gal. 3:17) he was at that precise moment of transformation became a spiritual infant in the kingdom of God needing to grow and mature spiritually from that point forward.

If you have not understood what I have said, then let me say it clearly - infant circucmison is a "shadow" of new birth experienced at the point of conversion from unbelief to belief and so infant circumcision is merely a more expanded "sign" of the very same truth.




The problem with your interpretation is that it is based upon jerking this text out of its overall context. Look at the scriptures that precede it as well as follow it.

The preceding context sets the stage for the reader to realize the COMPLETENESS in Christ by faith without ADDITIONS -

7 Rooted and built up in him, and stablished in the faith, as ye have been taught, abounding therein with thanksgiving.
8 Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ.
9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.
10 And ye are complete in him, which is the head of all principality and power
:

Beginning in verse 11 to verse 17 that completeness is without the "shadow" of the Old Testament ceremonial laws including circumcision as the substance (Christ and his completed work on the cross) makes the "shadow" obselete:

11 In whom also ye are circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, in putting off the body of the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ:
12 Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead.
13 ¶ And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses;
14 Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;
15 And having spoiled principalities and powers, he made a shew of them openly, triumphing over them in it.
16 ¶ Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holyday, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days:
17 Which are a shadow of things to come; but the body is of Christ.


Verses 11-13 deal particular with both circumcision and baptism and the one thing they have in common with each other as signs and that is the death or cutting off the flesh and new life. Both externally are signs of the cutting off of the sinful nature - the old flesh in regard to the NEW LIFE of the INWARD MAN.

Note his langauge in verse 11 as he introduces the new inward cirucumcision made without hands - meaning something only God can do as no human hands can accomplish this internal miracle of God. Romans 4:11 proves this work without hands does not occur simeltaneous with the external act. The external was a picture of what only God can do and thus the external NEVER accomplished what it pictured and neither does baptism.

What accomplishes this is "faith" that had to precede both circucmision and baptism as demonstrated in Abraham and so like circumision, baptism follows this internal act of God.

12 Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead.
13 ¶ And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses;

Baptism like circumcision externally signifies identification with Christ's death to sin and His resurrected regenerative life but it is "through" internal "faith of (subjective genitive - produced by) the operation of God" from which our spiritual life originates and from which we actually obtain remission of sins, rather than from external acts of baptism or circumcision. The same power (operation) of God that raised Jesus from the grave is the same power behind our faith which results in spiritual life and remission of sins.

Or let me paraphrase it this way. It is through baptism and circumcision that we SIGNIFY identification with death to sin and spiritual life, but it is through faith produced by the power of God, (the same power that literally raised Jesus from the Grave) we are quickened (made alive/born again) together with him and by which we literally receive remission of sins.

Paul cannot mean that faith produces eternal life and remission of sin CONTEMPORANEOUS with the act of circumcision or baptism as Romans 4:11 debunks that interpretation as false. Only that both FOLLOW inward conversion as an external "sign" of something already "had" previous to the ceremonial act. Both outwardly IDENTIFY the believer with the substance of faith - Christ - Acts 10:43 - and salvation obtained by the power of God not through shadows.

Thank you, Brother Biblicist, for taking the time to review all my commnents and for your very detailed, insightful response.

Your interpretation certainly makes alot of sense. It certainly seems plausible, except for the circumcision of infants in the OT. If the sign was simply a symbol of an internal faith, then why did God command Abraham and his descendants to give the sign to infants?

Why didn't they wait until the Hebrew child was old enough to make a profession of faith and THEN give him the sign (circumcision)? God seemed to want to include the infants of believers in his promise. Circumcision could not have been just a sign of Jewish nationalism because God told Abraham to give the sign to his 300 male slaves and servants. They were not his descendants. They and their descendants could never be a part of Israel.

Whatever the significance of infant circumcision was, I have a hard time seeing why God would want to include infants in the Old Covenant, but not in the New Covenant.

If infant baptism is not regenerational, then it has to be at least covenantal, like the Reformed believe. I just can't believe God left infants out in the cold in the New Covenant when he seemed to care for them so much in the Old Covenant.
 

Michael Wrenn

New Member
Thank you, Brother Biblicist, for taking the time to review all my commnents and for your very detailed, insightful response.

Your interpretation certainly makes alot of sense. It certainly seems plausible, except for the circumcision of infants in the OT. If the sign was simply a symbol of an internal faith, then why did God command Abraham and his descendants to give the sign to infants?

Why didn't they wait until the Hebrew child was old enough to make a profession of faith and THEN give him the sign (circumcision)? God seemed to want to include the infants of believers in his promise. Circumcision could not have been just a sign of Jewish nationalism because God told Abraham to give the sign to his 300 male slaves and servants. They were not his descendants. They and their descendants could never be a part of Israel.



Ah, but that is precisely why God did tell Abraham to do that because circumcision was an outward sign of a covenant with physical Israel -- the nation of Israel. They were indeed a part of the nation of Israel because they were owned by Abraham.


Whatever the significance of infant circumcision was, I have a hard time seeing why God would want to include infants in the Old Covenant, but not in the New Covenant.

If infant baptism is not regenerational, then it has to be at least covenantal, like the Reformed believe. I just can't believe God left infants out in the cold in the New Covenant when he seemed to care for them so much in the Old Covenant.

Ah, but He did not. I believe what the General Baptists say in their confession of faith: "We believe that infants are in the covenant of Gods grace." This is consistent also with what the Quakers believe; that's why the Quakers give their infants associate membership in the church. Infants are already in the covenant of God's grace; no ritual puts them there. God's grace is much more expansive. It includes all the innocent -- infants, the retarded, etc. They are covered by the covenant of God's grace apart from any ritual. Water baptism in the NT is a sign of spiritual regeneration that has already taken place because of a person's coming to faith. To use it otherwise is to completely change its meaning and purpose.

However, I can understand how you feel. That's why the CAC allows liberty of conscience in this matter. I also struggled with this for quite some time.

 
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Moriah

New Member
It certainly seems plausible, except for the circumcision of infants in the OT. If the sign was simply a symbol of an internal faith, then why did God command Abraham and his descendants to give the sign to infants?

Why didn't they wait until the Hebrew child was old enough to make a profession of faith and THEN give him the sign (circumcision)?
Because God made the Covenant with Abraham, that his descendents would be blessed.
Circumcision could not have been just a sign of Jewish nationalism because God told Abraham to give the sign to his 300 male slaves and servants. They were not his descendants. They and their descendants could never be a part of Israel.
The Jews even had slaves that were Jewish. Slaves were close to the family, why should they not obey the laws of the land.
Whatever the significance of infant circumcision was, I have a hard time seeing why God would want to include infants in the Old Covenant, but not in the New Covenant.
Water baptism is not an outward sign as many say. Water baptism is not a sign like circumcision. Water baptism leaves no physical sign. If an infant is baptized, they only know this when they grow up if their parents tell them, or if they find the church papers stating it.
However, when a believer is water baptized, it is a promise to God, a pledge, to die to the sins of the world and rise up to walk as Jesus did.
If infant baptism is not regenerational, then it has to be at least covenantal, like the Reformed believe. I just can't believe God left infants out in the cold in the New Covenant when he seemed to care for them so much in the Old Covenant.
Jesus says to become like little children. That statement alone should give you assurance that children are in God’s graces. It sounds as if you are limiting the ability and power of God for children who are not baptized.
 

billwald

New Member
>Even when the Jews did not obey God, they were still considered God's people.

Why don't people on BB give the same latitude to Catholics? Food for the goose . . . .
 

billwald

New Member
>>Originally Posted by Wittenberger
>>If infant baptism is not regenerational, then it has to be at least covenantal, like the Reformed believe. I just can't believe God left infants out in the cold in the New Covenant when he seemed to care for them so much in the Old Covenant.

>Jesus says to become like little children. That statement alone should give you assurance that children are in God’s graces. It sounds as if you are limiting the ability and power of God for children who are not baptized.

You saying that children are born regenerate then grow out of their regeneration?
 
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