Just for the record this is the NASB work on these two verses.
Isaiah 40:3
A voice is calling,
“Clear the way for the Lord in the wilderness;
Make smooth in the desert a highway for our God.
Matthew 3:3
For this is the one referred to by Isaiah the prophet when he said,
“The voice of one crying in the wilderness,
‘Make ready the way of the Lord,
Make His paths straight!’”
Here are the two given in the above post from the NRSV:
Isaiah 40:3.
A voice cries out:
“In the wilderness prepare the way of the Lord,
make straight in the desert a highway for our God.”
Matthew 3:3.
This is the one of whom the prophet Isaiah spoke when he said,
“The voice of one crying out in the wilderness:
“Prepare the way of the Lord,
make his paths straight.""
Now I realize in my feebleness I must be missing some nuance of the sort that brings contention mentioned in this quote:
A comparison of these two verses using the RSV does NOT “make it clear that the Jehovah of the OT is identical to the Jesus of the NT.” The RSV and NRSV are based upon a very different translation philosophy than the KJV, NKJV, ESV, or the NASB and most other translations—and consequently there is a marked difference in the theology presented. Which translation philosophy has resulted in giving us the Word of God in English—and which has not!
I just haven't found it.
Do you?