Joseph,
I am saying that homosexuality is not a birth defect, it is a spiritual defect. It is not genetic. I am further saying that I don't know if birth defects might have occurred before the fall and neither do you. If you think the Bible deals with the issue of birth defects before the fall, please show me from scripture where you see that. I know that the Bible deals with the issues of man's spiritual state before the fall, their interpersonal relationships with other men before the fall, and the fact that their sin cuased death. I see nothing about birth defects.
==Before the fall God called His creation "good" (vs10,12,21,25) and "very good" (vs31). Man and animals were eating plants and not each other because there was no death (not physical and not spiritual). God created a very good world. It was only after sin that suffering entered the picture (Gen 3:16-19, 4:8-10). This suffering includes humans, animals, and the entire creation. Humans now eat animals, animals now eat each other. This was no occuring before the fall (Gen 2:29-30, Gen 9:3). The idea that any form of human suffering occured before the fall, before sin, is unorthodox. The Bible simply does not allow for that. I will return to this later in this reply.
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1. That sin is a genetic birth defect caused by sin in general. If that were true, we would all have that genetic failing. We all don't. As a matter of fact, none of us do.
==Agree or disagree I don't see that as being properly labeled as heresy. Also I have not said that homosexuality "IS" biological in nature. I have said that there "maybe" biological "influences". That is far different from what you are claiming. Now, as I pointed out, there are clear medical examples of biological influences so I don't see how you can deny that possibility. As I have said even IF there is a biological influence that does not excuse the behavior. The behavior is still sin.
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That homosexuality is a genetic defect and not purely a choice of the natural sinful nature. It is a spiritual, not a biological issue. The totally depraved, sinful man is doing what is natural to him...whatever makes him feel good. For some it is pride. For some it is adultery. There are a myriad of sins that are committed by sinful man. None of them are the results of genetic wiring.
==I agree that homosexuality is a spiritual problem. As I have said already in this thread I believe that no true christian can be a homosexual (1Cor 6:9-10). What I am talking about is "influences". Could there be any "biological" influences? My argument is that since man has been negativly affected by sin (in all ways) it is certainly possible.
I can't accept your argument that health problems are not caused by sin. I think it is pretty clear in Scripture that all suffering is caused by sin in the bigger picture. I also think it is clear, via the medical community, that most human suffering comes from human sin and carelessness (polution, drugs, etc).
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1. Jesus was talking about "this" blind man (vs1,3). That man, nor his parents, did anything to cause his condition. Personal sin was not the issue (in that case). Certainly some people sin and suffer disease as a result (see next paragraph). But that was not the case with this man. This man was not blind because of his personal sin nor his parents. However apart from the fall (sin) this man would not have been born blind.
And the point that you ignore is that his blindness had a purpose, which was the glorification of God. You refuse to see that the blindness in and of itself was not evil
==That is not what I am talking about. I am making the point that Jesus and His disciples are refering to a specific man (ie..."this" man). I don't see Jesus giving a general all purposes principle here. As I pointed out elsewhere in my reply Jesus Himself did point out that sin can cause physical problems (see Jn 5:14). You are trying to make a general principle out of John 9:1-2 and I just don't see a general principle there. Maybe the point for us is that not all sick people have done something to deserve their sickness. However that has nothing to do with our discussion here since we are talking about sin in general (ie..the results of the fall and the curse).
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God did not make any man homosexual from birth for his glorification.
==I have not said that God made homosexuals. Don't build a strawman. Notice I rejected views 3 and 4 in my original post. I am only saying that there "maybe" some biological "influence" thanks to the problems created by the fall (ie...sin). However I am not certain about that. I do, however, believe that there are social and mental influences on people who turn to homosexuality. Behind those "influences" is the real cause of their condition (ie...spiritual death, lostness). However the spiritual death alone is not the problem since not all lost people, in fact most lost people, are not homosexuals. So what other factors come into play with lost people who are (and only lost people can be homosexuals -1Cor 6:9-10). That is the issue....influences.
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There is no condemnation of being blind in the Bible (except for those who were caught up in the ancient days version of the Word of Faith heresy). Homosexuality is very clearly condemned in the Bible. To compare the two is to do damage to logic and the Word of God.
==I did not compare the two...you did. You mentioned John 9:1-2.
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Concerning your heresy charge I find it interesting that the Lord Jesus does not call his disciples "heretics" because of their statement in verse 2. In fact their statement was a common belief of the time. They believed that if a person was born with a birth defect either their parents sinned, or they sinned before birth. Jesus pointed out that in this particular case (Jn 9:1ff) the belief was not true (vs3). However some people's sin does lead to their own physical suffering according to Jesus Himself and other clear Scripture (see Jn 5:14, Jms 5:15, 1Cor 11:30, Rom 1:27, Pr 5:11, etc).
1. While it is true that some people's sin did, indeed, lead to physical suffering and it is clearly verifiable in Scripture, the idea that all birth defects are the result of sin is not true or clearly verifiable in Scripture.
==All birth defects (etc) are not the result of personal sin. However all human suffering is a result of sin (ie..the fall). Saying that human suffering would have been true even if there was not fall seems to me to be highly unorthodox.
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2. Jesus never said that suffering was not the result of sin (in general). In fact Paul indicates that it is (see Rom 8:18-22). In a very real sense all suffering is a result of sin. For if there were no sin there would be on suffering.
You show very little understanding by using this passage to argue that physical suffering is always due to sin. It is clearly dealing with spiritual siffering with the groanings of birthpains. You will also note who caused the frustration and by whose will it occurred. There is nothing genetic in this passage.
==You are saying that Romans 8:18-22 is only talkiing about spiritual suffering? Let's see if that holds up:
"For I consider that
the sufferings of this present time are not worthy to be compared with the glory this is to be revealed to us. For the anxious longing of
the creation waits eagerly for the revealing of the sons of God. For
the creation itself was subjected to futility, not willingly, but because of Him who subjected it, in hope that
the creation itself also will be set from from its slavery to corruption into the freedom of the glory of the children of God. For we know that
the whole creation groans and suffers the pains of childbirth together until now." Romans 8:18-22
What terms did Paul use?
1. "the creation"
2. "the creation itself was subjected to futility"
3. "the creation itself also will be set from from its slavery to corruption"
4. "the whole creation groans"
Clearly Paul is talking about "the whole creation" not just humans spiritual condition. When was all of God's creation subjected to slavery? At the fall (Gen 3). I may not have a full understanding of this verse but I do see that it refers to "the whole of creation" suffering due to its slavery to corruption and not just human spiritual suffering.
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There are influences. They are spiritual, not biological in nature.[/QB]
==What about social and/or mental influences? Certainly the root cause is spiritual but since not all lost people are homosexuals, most lost people are not homosexuals, the question must be asked what other factors come into play? Are those factors sociological? As a sociology major I think there certainly are sociological factors. A person's enviroment has a large affect on their behavior. Indeed the people a person grows up around (family and friends) and other social influences have a large affect that person. Now it certainly does not "cause" any behavior. Rather it is an "influence". So I must allow for sociological factors. This seems logical and it is Biblical. The Bible shows, by teaching and example, that people can be influenced by others to do both good and evil.
Are there psychological factors? If there are sociological factors there must be some level of psychological factors.
Are there biological factors? Did something, due to sin, go wrong in certain people's biology that causes them to lean towards homosexuality? I don't know. However I think we cannot say 100% no. Why not? As I have pointed out we know of other sinful behaviors that have a biological influence (not root, root is spiritual). Therefore I don't see how we can 100% say yes or no on the biological influences.
In Christ,
Martin.