Is the Adamic sin imputed?

[Clint Kritzer]

Scott -

I'm sorry for jumping on this thread this late. We had a power outage here. I was typing a post for this thread at the time and, of course, it was lost, but you can rest assured it was eloquently brilliant!

As to your original query, the sin of Adam is what is responsible for our being expelled from the Garden of Eden. We inherit the sinful nature. Adam and Eve had the sinful nature before the Fall or else satan could not have tempted them to eat the fruit of the Tree of Knowledge. We were created with a sinful nature from the beginning.

The Fall is a necessary element in bringing about God's Divine plan for mankind. Genesis 3 is concluded in Revelation 21 & 22. Man's sinful nature is a necessary element to bring us to the communion with God that He intended from the beginning. God is Sovereign and Omnipotent. All that he created and the course that they have followed are of design including the First Coming of Christ. That is why Paul says in Romans 5:20-21 that the law was added to INCREASE trespass. As time passed we became aware of more sin. As the sin awareness increased, so did the Grace.

This is all part of a Master plan to bring us back to a point where we may have access to the Tree of Life once again (Revelation 22:2). Sin and free will seperate us from the rest of God's creations because of our sinful nature and the recognition of what sin is. That is why the other creatures were merely created whereas man was formed in God's image and had his life sparked by the Divine breath of God.

Sinning is not necessary for this plan to succeed. The sin nature is. As I said before on the other thread, to blame Adam for our sins is to fall into the same trap that he and Eve did in Genisis 3:12&13. We can't pass the blame for our individual sins on to anyone else, including Adam.

If God's intention had been for us to never explore the nature of sin, He would not have put the Tree in the garden in the first place.

 

[Scott_Bushey]

Clint,
With all due respect, please refer to my last post to Helen. The Greek exegete is there.......

[ October 21, 2002, 07:46 PM: Message edited by: Scott Bushey ]

 

[Scott_Bushey]

~Westminster Confession CHAPTER VI

Of the Fall of Man, of Sin, and of the Punishment Thereof
I. Our first parents, being seduced by the subtlety and temptation of Satan, sinned, in eating the forbidden fruit.[124] This their sin, God was pleased, according to his wise and holy counsel, to permit, having purposed to order it to his own glory.[125]

II. By this sin they fell from their original righteousness and communion with God,[126] and so became dead in sin,[127] and wholly defiled in all the parts and faculties of soul and body.[128]

III. They being the root of all mankind, the guilt of this sin was imputed;[129] and the same death in sin, and corrupted nature, conveyed to all their posterity descending from them by ordinary generation.[130]


~Baptist Confession of 1689

._____ Our first parents, by this sin, fell from their original righteousness and communion with God, and we in them whereby death came upon all: all becoming dead in sin, and wholly defiled in all the faculties and parts of soul and body.
( Romans 3:23; Romans 5:12, etc; Titus 1:15; Genesis 6:5; Jeremiah 17:9; Romans 3:10-19 )

3._____ They being the root, and by God's appointment, standing in the room and stead of all mankind, the guilt of the sin was imputed, and corrupted nature conveyed, to all their posterity descending from them by ordinary generation, being now conceived in sin, and by nature children of wrath, the servants of sin, the subjects of death, and all other miseries, spiritual, temporal, and eternal, unless the Lord Jesus set them free.
( Romans 5:12-19; 1 Corinthians 15:21, 22, 45, 49; Psalms 51:5; Job 14:4; Ephesians 2:3; Romans 6:20 Romans 5:12; Hebrews 2:14, 15; 1 Thessalonians 1:10 )

4._____ From this original corruption, whereby we are utterly indisposed, disabled, and made opposite to all good, and wholly inclined to all evil, do proceed all actual transgressions.
( Romans 8:7; Colossians 1:21; James 1:14, 15; Matthew 15:19 )

 

[Grasshopper]

Adam's sin is My sin.

http://www.emmanuel-baptist.org/sermons/Romans/Romans30.htm

Adam's Sin -- My Sin

Romans 5:12-14

The main emphasis of this latter section of Romans 5 is to prove that God judges us all for Adam's sin. In other words, Adam's sin was my sin because in some mysterious way I was in union with Adam (federal representation). This truth of original sin is first introduced by Paul in v.12. Verses 13-17 form an explanation to the phrase "all sinned" as if Paul expects objections to the doctrine that we are all condemned for Adam's sin.

The Primacy of the Doctrine of Original Sin (v.12).
Adam's sin is my sin is both a primary, and highly opposed, doctrine of Christianity. It is vociferously opposed because a true understanding of the gospel comes from it. "Adam's sin is as truly ours as it was his, but not sin in the same sense. It was his sin personally; it is our sin because we were in him," Robert Haldane. Until you know what it means to be "in Adam" it will be difficult to know what it means to be "in Christ."
Let me illustrate. If I say, "Through one man sin and death entered the world and death spread to everybody because all sinned individually," then the comparison with Christ would be, "So also through one man, Jesus Christ, righteousness and life entered the world and life spread to all because all individually did acts of righteousness." In other words, justification would not be God's imputing Christ's righteousness to us, but our performing individual acts of righteousness with Christ's help and then being counted righteous on that basis. This is a denial of the gospel.

The Proof of the Doctrine of Original Sin (vs.13-14).
In these two verses Paul gives very logical evidence for the doctrine of original sin.
Sin was in the world before the Mosaic Law; personal sin, not just Adam's sin.
But sin is not imputed (not counted, not punished) where there is no law(13b).
Nevertheless, death reigned from Adam until Moses.
Everyone died. It made no difference whether or not the Mosaic Law was in effect, or even if people (infants) personally sinned by violating one of God's commandments. Everyone died because in Adam everyone sinned.
"Instead of dying for their actual sins, death is to all men the penalty of the first sin" Robert Haldane. Why is it so essential that a person believe this?
The Power of the Doctrine of Original Sin (vs.14b).
The little phrase "Adam is the figure of him that was to come" shows us its power. We are condemned by the sin of one, and we are justified by the obedience of one.
This doctrine humbles -- I don't do bad things, I am bad. I am a condemned sinner.
This doctrine makes us grateful -- If I am changed, I owe it all to God's grace.
This doctrine helps us understand our world -- it is universally evil -- except in those nations where the grace of God through Jesus Christ is prevalent.
This doctrine helps us understand the function of government -- C.S. Lewis says it is the basis of putting power in the hands of many -- nobody can be trusted.
This doctrine helps us also have compassion for others -- we are no better.
This doctrine motivates us for evangelism -- all are in need of a second Adam.

 

[Clint Kritzer]

Scott - With all due respect right back:

If Adam made us all sinners, then who made Adam a sinner?

 

[latterrain77]

Hi Scott. Yes, I believe mankind does “inherit” sin from Adam. ALL humans are “IN” Adam.

However, every human being is not “IN” Christ. Only the saved are. As a result, only the saved “IN” Christ will see heaven.

”For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive” (1 Cor.15: 22) (the emphasis on “in” is mine).

latterrain77

 

[Scott_Bushey]

Clint, Chet,
I would assume you understand that there is a big difference between God decreeing something and God creating a thing, i.e. God creating evil and His allowance of it. God allowed sin to come into the world---He didn't however, create it.

Adam is our federal & natural head. He has the capability to pass on natural and federal traits.
God is not a man, He passes down none of these caracteristics. He has surely *created* men in His image, but His creation of that image is entirely different from what He has deemed (ordained/ decreed) mans responsibility is in the passing down (imputation) of certain things. Adam was responsible in passing *sin* down to his lineage as Christs responsibility is passing down *righteousness* to His people.

This was the whole point in my treatise on Rom 5:19.
Rom 5:19 For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.

The Greek grammar and lexiclogy cannot be misinterpreted. The same Greek words are used in the general capacity to denote sin or sinning and the idea behind the sinner being exposed to punishment for that sin.

1 Ki 8:46 If they sin against thee, (for there is no man that sinneth not,) and thou be angry with them, and deliver them to the enemy, so that they carry them away captives unto the land of the enemy, far or near;

Eccl 7:20 For there is not a just man upon earth, that doeth good, and sinneth not.

[ October 22, 2002, 10:37 AM: Message edited by: Scott Bushey ]

 

[latterrain77]

Hi Clint. Thank you for your terrific thoughts on this subject. I do not believe that Adam & Eve had a sinful nature before the Fall. Genesis 1: 31 shows GOD himself saying that everything was VERY GOOD. My sense is that it is not possible for "sin" to exist within something that GOD says is VERY GOOD. It's a difficult subject for sure.

latterrain77

 

[Angie Miller]

I always thought that rejecting God was the "unforgivable" sin, but it was shown to me in a different light. That if we continue to turn our backs on God and blasphmy the Holy Spirit God will allow our hearts to harden toward Him and we may never come to Him. Just a differnt perspective.

Love in Christ Angie

 

[KenH]

Originally posted by Helen:
All that will be left for so many is not their sins, plural, but their sin, singular, of rejection -- the one sin that could not be forgiven.

I simply have to disagree with you, Helen. I believe that for the lost all of there sins will be punished, not just one. However, since we are on opposites sides of the Calvinism/Arminianism debate(as we have talked about in that forum), we'll just have to remain unreconciled on this issue this side of eternity.

May God bless you.

[ October 22, 2002, 01:37 PM: Message edited by: Ken Hamilton ]

 

[Paul of Eugene]

OK I have a question about Adamic Imputed Sin. How is it inherited? Is it present as a gene on the x chromosone only? Is it present on any gene at all? Is it like being a titled lord, a matter of someone outside simply saying you inherit it because that's the way society is organized (and if that's the case, exactly what society is organized that way)? Is it a matter of being born to sinful parents in a sinful society and so you are bound to "catch" it like you catch a common cold? Is it some other possibility that I haven't properly described here, and if so, what is that other possibility?

 

[Clint Kritzer]

Originally posted by Clint Kritzer:
If Adam made us all sinners, then who made Adam a sinner?

Call me slow, Scott, but did you answer this question?

I will add one more question to chew on while you're at it: why did Adam and Eve not fulfill the command to "be fruitful and multiply" and begin the human race until after the fall?

[ October 22, 2002, 05:43 PM: Message edited by: Clint Kritzer ]

 

[Scott_Bushey]

Clint,
I won't call you slow........My reply to the question was one page back. It reads:

Clint, Chet,
I would assume you understand that there is a big difference between God decreeing/ordaining something and God creating a thing, i.e. The difference between God creating evil or His allowance of it. God allowed sin to come into the world---He didn't however, create it. Man freely, of his own accord, fell.

Adam is our federal & natural head. He has the capability to pass on natural and federal traits.
God is not a man, He passes down none of these caracteristics. He has surely *created* men in His image, but His creation of that image is entirely different from what He has deemed (ordained/ decreed) mans responsibility is in the passing down (imputation) of certain things. Adam was responsible in passing *sin* down to his lineage as Christs responsibility is passing down *righteousness* to His people.

This was the whole point in my treatise on Rom 5:19.
Rom 5:19 For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.

The Greek grammar and lexiclogy cannot be misinterpreted. The same Greek words are used in the general capacity to denote sin or sinning and the idea behind the sinner being exposed to punishment for that sin.

1 Ki 8:46 If they sin against thee, (for there is no man that sinneth not,) and thou be angry with them, and deliver them to the enemy, so that they carry them away captives unto the land of the enemy, far or near;

Eccl 7:20 For there is not a just man upon earth, that doeth good, and sinneth not.

 

[Scott_Bushey]

Clint asks:
I will add one more question to chew on while you're at it: why did Adam and Eve not fulfill the command to "be fruitful and multiply" and begin the human race until after the fall?

Scott inquires:
How have you come up with that idea....that their "endeavoring for children" was necessarily after the fall? Because ch 2 precedes ch 3?

 

[Scott_Bushey]

Originally posted by Paul of Eugene:
OK I have a question about Adamic Imputed Sin. How is it inherited? Is it present as a gene on the x chromosone only? Is it present on any gene at all? Is it like being a titled lord, a matter of someone outside simply saying you inherit it because that's the way society is organized (and if that's the case, exactly what society is organized that way)? Is it a matter of being born to sinful parents in a sinful society and so you are bound to "catch" it like you catch a common cold? Is it some other possibility that I haven't properly described here, and if so, what is that other possibility?

The scripture says:

Rom 5:12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:
Rom 5:13 (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
Rom 5:14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.
Rom 5:15 But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many.
Rom 5:16 And not as it was by one that sinned, so is the gift: for the judgment was by one to condemnation, but the free gift is of many offences unto justification.
Rom 5:17 For if by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ.)
Rom 5:18 Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life.
Rom 5:19 For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.

 

[Lorelei]

Scott,

I am confused. How come you believe this to mean that Christ did not die for all men....

Originally posted by Scott Bushey:
Also Helen, Why did Christ say Himself that had come to save:
"Many" (not all), "His people" (from their sin).

Yet you believe that this means sin is imputed to all men. Doesn't this also use the word many?

Originally posted by Scott Bushey:
This was the whole point in my treatise on Rom 5:19.
Rom 5:19 For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous

You then come up with this conclusion:

Originally posted by Scott Bushey:
Sin is imputed. Babies are not sinless

If you believe that Christ only died for many, then shouldn't you believe that Adam imputed his sin to many thereby leaving the possiblity that those who are not in that many could be infants?

If not, then why does it say that only many were made sinners?

~Lorelei

 

[Clint Kritzer]

originally posted by Scott: Is the sin of father Adam imputed or does man just *inherit* the sin nature?

...

Sinners: Greek/harmartolos (Strongs# 268)
Defined as "Exposed to the punishment of sin".

~Sin natures do not necessarily imply *sinning*.
~Sin natures do not necessarily deserve *punishment* for their nature.

So being exposed to the punishment of sin equals being guilty of the sin? This is not so:

Ezekiel 18

14"Now suppose this man fathers a son who sees all the sins that his father has done; he sees, and does not do likewise: 15he does not eat upon the mountains or lift up his eyes to the idols of the house of Israel, does not defile his neighbor's wife, 16does not oppress anyone, exacts no pledge, commits no robbery, but gives his bread to the hungry and covers the naked with a garment, 17withholds his hand from iniquity, takes no interest or profit, obeys my rules, and walks in my statutes; he shall not die for his father's iniquity; he shall surely live. 18As for his father, because he practiced extortion, robbed his brother, and did what is not good among his people, behold, he shall die for his iniquity.
19"Yet you say, 'Why should not the son suffer for the iniquity of the father?' When the son has done what is just and right, and has been careful to observe all my statutes, he shall surely live. 20The soul who sins shall die. The son shall not suffer for the iniquity of the father, nor the father suffer for the iniquity of the son. The righteousness of the righteous shall be upon himself, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon himself.

I would assume you understand that there is a big difference between God decreeing something and God creating a thing, i.e. God creating evil and His allowance of it. God allowed sin to come into the world---He didn't however, create it.

I disagree:

Proverbs 16

4The LORD has made everything for its purpose,
even the wicked for the day of trouble.

Psalm 33

9For he spoke, and it came to be;
he commanded, and it stood firm.

Adam was responsible in passing *sin* down to his lineage as Christs responsibility is passing down *righteousness* to His people.

Each individual receives righteousness on their own accord just as each sins on his own accord:

Matthew 7:8
For everyone who asks receives; he who seeks finds; and to him who knocks, the door will be opened.

Clint,
I won't call you slow........My reply to the question was one page back. It reads:

When I read the thread earlier, my name was not in the greeting of the post. I wanted to make sure that you r answer was addressed to my question.

Even with your exegesis, you have not shown that man inherited the SIN and not just the sin nature. To say that he has goes counter to the other cited passages such as the Ezekiel passage above and Jeremiah 31:29:
"In those days people will no longer say, 'The fathers have eaten sour grapes, and the children's teeth are set on edge.' Instead, everyone will die for his own sin; whoever eats sour grapes-his own teeth will be set on edge.

To say otherwise is out of harmony with Scripture.

I'll post later on the chronology of the Adam and Eve statement.

[ October 22, 2002, 07:39 PM: Message edited by: Clint Kritzer ]

 

[Scott_Bushey]

Lorelei,
Your question comprises the whole of biblical theology. It is an excellent question, mind you.
Based upon its multi-faceted characteristic, I must rely on forwarding you to reading material as the question cannot be answered here in this forum as the depth of material is much too deep for this venue.

http://www.pbministries.org/books/pink/Sovereignty/sovereignty.htm

http://www.pbministries.org/books/pink/Election/election.htm

http://www.pbministries.org/books/pink/Attributes/attributes.htm

 

[Scott_Bushey]

Clint writes:
So being exposed to the punishment of sin equals being guilty of the sin? This is not so:

Ezekiel 18

14"Now suppose this man fathers a son who sees all the sins that his father has done; he sees, and does not do likewise: 15he does not eat upon the mountains or lift up his eyes to the idols of the house of Israel, does not defile his neighbor's wife, 16does not oppress anyone, exacts no pledge, commits no robbery, but gives his bread to the hungry and covers the naked with a garment, 17withholds his hand from iniquity, takes no interest or profit, obeys my rules, and walks in my statutes; he shall not die for his father's iniquity; he shall surely live. 18As for his father, because he practiced extortion, robbed his brother, and did what is not good among his people, behold, he shall die for his iniquity.
19"Yet you say, 'Why should not the son suffer for the iniquity of the father?' When the son has done what is just and right, and has been careful to observe all my statutes, he shall surely live. 20The soul who sins shall die. The son shall not suffer for the iniquity of the father, nor the father suffer for the iniquity of the son. The righteousness of the righteous shall be upon himself, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon himself.

Clint, you are trying to dismantle one of the most accepted principles of the Christian faith, that being imputation of Adams sin. This one verse does not in any way challenge the doctrine.
First of all, the above passage has to do with sins committed in a "national capacity", i.e. the sins of Manasseh, etc. The idea of sons & daughters "bearing, or not bearing, the iniquity" of the parent is meant to mean that the sons & daughters would gladly embrace, indulge, continue with the same sins that their parents sinned, hence the consequences if they did, or if they didn't, the benefit that would come from their obedience. It has little to do with the sin of our federal head Adam.

Clint, how can you honestly say that the termonology used in the Romans passage and those that utilize the same Greek word do not mean the same thing...........

There is no way to disconnect the exegesis of Romans 5:19.
For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners , so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.

Matt 9:3 uses the same term. Christ feels that this descripion of a sinner warrants "repentance"?

~ So, having compared the two verses with the Greek, one can ascertain that in regards to Romans 5:19, it literally reads:

For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners (AND IN NEED OF REPENTANCE), so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.

Please feel free to insert the definition in these previously presented scriptures.....

Mat 11:19 The Son of man came eating and drinking, and they say, Behold a man gluttonous, and a winebibber, a friend of publicans and sinners (harmartolos). But wisdom is justified of her children.

Luke 15:2 And the Pharisees and scribes murmured, saying, This man receiveth sinners (harmartolos), and eateth with them.

Luke 6:33 And if ye do good to them which do good to you, what thank have ye? for sinners (harmartolos) also do even the same.

John 9:31 Now we know that God heareth not sinners (harmartolos): but if any man be a worshipper of God, and doeth his will, him he heareth.

Rom 5:8 But God commendeth his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners (harmartolos), Christ died for us.

Gal 2:15 We who are Jews by nature, and not sinners (harmartolos) of the Gentiles,
Gal 2:16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.
Gal 2:17 But if, while we seek to be justified by Christ, we ourselves also are found sinners (harmartolos), is therefore Christ the minister of sin? God forbid.

1 Tim 1:8 But we know that the law is good, if a man use it lawfully;
1 Tim 1:9 Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners (harmartolos), for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers,

Scott adds:
Having proven the case that the term *sinner* used in Rom 5:19 requires repentance, this in fact also provides *proof* that the fall imputed Father Adams sin to the whole human race (Again, allowing the Greek grammar and structure to speak from Rom 5:19).

Let us look at another verse in Romans:

Rom 5:18 Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life.

Scott states:
Looks pretty clear to me?

Clint, are you implying that men are not condemned due to the fall?

Moving on..........

Scott previously asked:

I would assume you understand that there is a big difference between God decreeing something and God creating a thing, i.e. God creating evil and His allowance of it. God allowed sin to come into the world---He didn't however, create it.

Clint responds:

"I disagree"

Proverbs 16

4The LORD has made everything for its purpose,
even the wicked for the day of trouble.

Scott inquires:
Clint, I am asking again because I want to be perfectly clear here........are you stating that God *IS* the creator of Evil?

[ October 23, 2002, 10:37 AM: Message edited by: Scott Bushey ]

 

[Clint Kritzer]

Originally posted by Scott Bushey:
Clint writes:
So being exposed to the punishment of sin equals being guilty of the sin? This is not so:

Ezekiel 18, etc.
...

Clint, you are trying to dismantle one of the most accepted principles of the Christian faith, that being imputation of Adams sin. This one verse does not in any way challenge the doctrine.

One verse???
Scott, with all due respect, look back over this thread and the original topic of baby's sinning. You will find man's accountability for his own sins in:

Genesis 8:21
Jeremiah 31:29
Ezekiel 18:20
Ezekiel 28:15
Isaiah 59:2
Romans 14:12
and I will add one more right now if you wish: Revelation 20:12

There are a slew of others. If pressed I will find you another handful at a time.

In the meantime you have continuously reassert the same text from Romans 5 with a lexicon definition that says "Exposed to the punishment of sin". From this you have made an interpretation that this means "resposibility for Adam's sin." Scott, come on man. The discussion is becoming fruitless.

First of all, the above passage [Ezekiel 18:14-20] has to do with sins committed in a "national capacity", i.e. the sins of Manasseh, etc. The idea of sons & daughters "bearing, or not bearing, the iniquity" of the parent is meant to mean that the sons & daughters would gladly embrace, indulge, continue with the same sins that their parents sinned, hence the consequences if they did, or if they didn't, the benefit that would come from their obedience. It has little to do with the sin of our federal head Adam.

Here's the word "sin" from Ezekiel 18:4 as shown in Strong's Hebrew Lexicon. I see nothing to do with a "national capacity. It is speaking of individual souls. Click here

Clint, how can you honestly say that the termonology used in the Romans passage and those that utilize the same Greek word do not mean the same thing...........

I did n't say that they did not have the same definition. It is your definition of them that is in question.

Please feel free to insert the definition in these previously presented scriptures.....

I would ask that you do the same. It still makes sense!

Scott states:
Looks pretty clear to me?

Then I am not one to beat a dead horse. You began this thread with a question on which you had already made up your mind. I (and others) tried to show you another angle using Scripture bt you will not acknowledge any other interpretation but the presupposition with which you began this thread.

Clint, are you implying that men are not condemned due to the fall?

I never said that. I said they are in need of salvation because of their own sinful natures.

Clint, I am asking again because I want to be perfectly clear here........are you stating that God *IS* the creator of Evil?

Let the Scriptures speak for themselves:

Isaiah 45
7 I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the LORD do all these things.

Revelation 4
11 Thou art worthy, O Lord, to receive glory and honour and power: for thou hast created all things, and for thy pleasure they are and were created.

How did He create it? By His definition of Good. Once God defined Good, all else became evil. Evil is the absence of Good just as darkness is the absence of light. Evil is destruction and chaos.

For further pondering see:

Judges 9:23

1 Samuel 18:10

Ecclesiastes 6:2

Jonah 3:10

To deny that there is ANYTHING not created by God is to deny His Soveriegnty and Omnipotence.