Is the Doctrine of Original Sin Biblical?

[JonC]

Every person has inherited what we call “original sin.” By default, they are spiritually unable to do anything good in the eyes of God.

Fortunately, by the grace of God, every person is able to be drawn to God through the Gospel.

I think sometimes the terms people use causes disagreements that are not there (or clouds disagreements).

This is a good example. Some take the doctrine of original sin to be the Catholic doctrine. Some just to indicate the Fall. And some to describe the "mind set on the flesh".

I think the best option is to use Biblical words in terms of our nature(s). If that can't be done, maybe agreement on definitions prior to discussion.

 

[Baptizo]

Some take the doctrine of original sin to be the Catholic doctrine. Some just to indicate the Fall. And some to describe the "mind set on the flesh".

I think the best option is to use Biblical words in terms of our nature(s). If that can't be done, maybe agreement on definitions prior to discussion.

The bottom line is, unless one repents and believes the Gospel, they will remain dead in their sins. As Paul tells us in Romans, you are either in Adam or you are in Christ and I think all of us can agree on that.

Some like to speculate how you get from point A to point B. As per the Catholic doctrine, I see no passages in scripture that says baptism washes away original sin. As per the Calvinist doctrine, I see no passages that tell us that a person is unable to respond to the Gospel message as a default condition from birth due to original sin.

 

[JonC]

The bottom line is, unless one repents and believes the Gospel, they will remain dead in their sins. As Paul tells us in Romans, you are either in Adam or you are in Christ and I think all of us can agree on that.

Some like to speculate how you get from point A to point B. As per the Catholic doctrine, I see no passages in scripture that says baptism washes away original sin. As per the Calvinist doctrine, I see no passages that tell us that a person is unable to respond to the Gospel message as a default condition from birth due to original sin.

I agree.

 

[JD731]

The language of original sin is unbiblical.

How so

Because it is not in the Bible.

Did not Adam originally Sin in Genesis? Romans 5 indicates that was the origin of sin. right? So what do you mean when you say it is not in the bible?

Not right. The scriptures says "by one man sin entered into the world." No where are we told this man Adam is the original sinner. It is dangerous to use non biblical language when there is not a solid doctrine to support it in passages that honors context and word definitions. The serpent was created on day 4 and sinned on that day. Adam was not created until day 6. See Isa 12 and Eze 28 for up to date headlines on the subject.

Satan; a liar and the father of it.
Satan: a murderer from the beginning.

In the Reformed doctrines Original Sin doctrine has nothing to do with who sinned first. It is the results of the sin in men making them unable to believe God. Their false doctrine makes it a sin to be born because everyone is guilty of Adam's sin.

Tell us where your version of the doctrine is taught.

 

[Zaatar71]

Not right. The scriptures says "by one man sin entered into the world." No where are we told this man Adam is the original sinner. It is dangerous to use non biblical language when there is not a solid doctrine to support it in passages that honors context and word definitions. The serpent was created on day 4 and sinned on that day. Adam was not created until day 6. See Isa 12 and Eze 28 for up to date headlines on the subject.

Satan; a liar and the father of it.
Satan: a murderer from the beginning.

In the Reformed doctrines Original Sin doctrine has nothing to do with who sinned first. It is the results of the sin in men making them unable to believe God. Their false doctrine makes it a sin to be born because everyone is guilty of Adam's sin.

Tell us where your version of the doctrine is taught.

Hello JD,
Was there a man before Adam? You say not to use non biblical language, but clearly among men Adam sinned and spiritual, and physical death followed. So...are you saying that people can be born a blank slate without any ties to Adams sin? If we did not die in Adam, why does eph2 say we were dead in sin? What death? It is not physical death there, right? How do you define this death in Eph2.?

 

[Silverhair]

Romans 3:11 disagrees with you.

But these verses would disagree with your view.

2Ch 30:18... But Hezekiah prayed for them, saying, "May the good LORD provide atonement for everyone
2Ch 30:19 who prepares his heart to seek God, the LORD God of his fathers, though he is not cleansed according to the purification of the sanctuary."

Job_5:8 "But as for me, I would seek God, And to God I would commit my cause;

Job 8:5 If you would earnestly seek God And make your supplication to the Almighty,

Psa_14:2 The LORD looks down from heaven upon the children of men, To see if there are any who understand, who seek God.

Psa_53:2 God looks down from heaven upon the children of men, To see if there are any who understand, who seek God.

Psa_69:32 The humble shall see this and be glad; And you who seek God, your hearts shall live.

Man can seek God but they do not always seek God. Even the best Christian, since we all sin, does not always seek after God. And even the worst sinner can seek God.

As we are told in
Isa 55:6 Seek the LORD while He may be found, Call upon Him while He is near.
Isa 55:7 Let the wicked forsake his way, And the unrighteous man his thoughts; Let him return to the LORD, And He will have mercy on him; And to our God, For He will abundantly pardon.

The words in Romans 3:11have been miss used to support a theological view.

 

[JD731]

Hello JD,
Was there a man before Adam? You say not to use non biblical language, but clearly among men Adam sinned and spiritual, and physical death followed. So...are you saying that people can be born a blank slate without any ties to Adams sin? If we did not die in Adam, why does eph2 say we were dead in sin? What death? It is not physical death there, right? How do you define this death in Eph2.?

Ho, Zaatar 71:
You are asking me to answer all the questions and I am glad to give out what I know. But if you have Bible on the subject that is logical and reasonable I would like to read your comments about it. Most of the time here folks just throw out opinions or out of context verses and are upset if someone defends their understanding in more than 3 sentences.

I commented extensively on this subject on the threads penalsustitutionalism 1 and 2. I suggest reading those comments. I answered all the above questions on those threads.

 

[Silverhair]

Hello JD,
Was there a man before Adam? You say not to use non biblical language, but clearly among men Adam sinned and spiritual, and physical death followed. So...are you saying that people can be born a blank slate without any ties to Adams sin? If we did not die in Adam, why does eph2 say we were dead in sin? What death? It is not physical death there, right? How do you define this death in Eph2.?

Just to jump in here with a comment.

To say someone is dead spiritually simply affirms a fact that in relation to real spiritual life they were, in consequence of sin, like a dead man. Barnes

That is why we are told that in Christ we are made alive.

Metaphorically when we say someone is spiritually dead we mean they are "destitute of a life that recognizes and is devoted to God, because they are given up to trespasses and sins; inactive as respects doing right": Joh_5:25; Rom_6:13; Eph_5:14; Rev_3:1 Thayer's Unabridged Greek -English Lexicon

 

[Ben1445]

Ho, Zaatar 71:
You are asking me to answer all the questions and I am glad to give out what I know. But if you have Bible on the subject that is logical and reasonable I would like to read your comments about it. Most of the time here folks just throw out opinions or out of context verses and are upset if someone defends their understanding in more than 3 sentences.

I commented extensively on this subject on the threads penalsustitutionalism 1 and 2. I suggest reading those comments. I answered all the above questions on those threads.

You could have answered the question in the same time you took not answering.

 

[Ben1445]

Yes there had to be an original sin. Does each person have to address original sin? We don’t have to address the original sin. That one belongs to Adam and we are not responsible for what other people do. We are sinners ourselves. Even though sin entered the world because of Adam and death resulted, we are still guilty because of our own sins, not Adam’s. We have to address our own sin.

 

[percho]

Is, the foundation of the world, different than, in beginning God created the heavens and the earth?

The sin of Adam brought sin into the world and thus the death because of the sin.

1 John 3:8 YLT he who is doing the sin, of the devil he is, because from the beginning the devil doth sin; for this was the Son of God manifested, that he may break up the works of the devil;

When did the sin of the devil take place relative to the foundation of the world?

James 1:15 YLT states - afterward the desire having conceived, doth give birth to sin, and the sin having been perfected, doth bring forth death.

What was the sin of the devil? Was it rooted in desire? Did sin of the devil bring death to anything? When di the sin of the devil take place?

What, was / is, God doing about the sin of the devil? What does the word of God state to be the last enemy to be destroyed/done away?
Is that relative to the devil and his works?

In what was the Son of God manifested? Why in that manner?

But one in a certain place testified, saying,

What is man

 

[percho]

Yes there had to be an original sin. Does each person have to address original sin? We don’t have to address the original sin. That one belongs to Adam and we are not responsible for what other people do. We are sinners ourselves. Even though sin entered the world because of Adam and death resulted, we are still guilty because of our own sins, not Adam’s. We have to address our own sin.

Amen brother From Gal 3:22 But the scripture hath concluded all under sin,

 

[Ben1445]

What is man

Not sure which certain place you are referring to but I’m pretty sure it’s not in context. Any that I know of are not talking about original sin.
Tell me if I’m wrong but give me the reference.

 

[Van]

He was very on topic Van

He responded directly to you

Yet another totally off topic "troll like" post addressing my behavior rather than the topic. This is the trade-mark of false teachers!!

 

[Van]

Romans 3:11 disagrees with you.

No, Romans 3:11 completely agrees with Luke 13:24! Your doctrine is the one that actually disagrees with scripture.

 

[JesusFan]

Yes there had to be an original sin. Does each person have to address original sin? We don’t have to address the original sin. That one belongs to Adam and we are not responsible for what other people do. We are sinners ourselves. Even though sin entered the world because of Adam and death resulted, we are still guilty because of our own sins, not Adam’s. We have to address our own sin.

All humans were born into Adam, we a;; [partook and shared in His fall, so are spiritual dead and under curse of physical death

 

[JesusFan]

I agree.

Do you agree then that when we were still in Adam, were spiritual dead?

 

[JesusFan]

The bottom line is, unless one repents and believes the Gospel, they will remain dead in their sins. As Paul tells us in Romans, you are either in Adam or you are in Christ and I think all of us can agree on that.

Some like to speculate how you get from point A to point B. As per the Catholic doctrine, I see no passages in scripture that says baptism washes away original sin. As per the Calvinist doctrine, I see no passages that tell us that a person is unable to respond to the Gospel message as a default condition from birth due to original sin.

The natural Man, lost sinner, cannot receive the things of God, for they are to be spiritually discern.

 

[Ben1445]

The natural Man, lost sinner, cannot receive the things of God, for they are to be spiritually discern.

Except that God has revealed Himself to all mankind.
Romans 1
For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness; Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them. For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse: Because that, when they knew God, they glorified him not as God, neither were thankful; but became vain in their imaginations, and their foolish heart was darkened. Professing themselves to be wise, they became fools,

It’s true that we love Him because He first loved us. But the discussion of who Jesus died for is such a simple matter. Jesus died for all, Whosoever, because He not willing that any should perish. It is the will of man that rejects God. Man is aware of who God is. It that man rejects God rather than coming to Him. I don’t think that anyone here really thinks that we are making our own way to God without Jesus. But Jesus came for us. God declares himself to everyone.
We are without excuse because we are all able to come to Him.
Romans 5:18
Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life.
One man to condemn all and one man to redeem all who come. Not some of all. The uttermost. The absolute maximum. Any who come. The grace of God is not limited in power and ability. Man limits God.
Hebrews 7:25
Wherefore he is able also to save them to the uttermost that come unto God by him, seeing he ever liveth to make intercession for them.

 

[JesusFan]

Except that God has revealed Himself to all mankind.
Romans 1
For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness; Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them. For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse: Because that, when they knew God, they glorified him not as God, neither were thankful; but became vain in their imaginations, and their foolish heart was darkened. Professing themselves to be wise, they became fools,

It’s true that we love Him because He first loved us. But the discussion of who Jesus died for is such a simple matter. Jesus died for all, Whosoever, because He not willing that any should perish. It is the will of man that rejects God. Man is aware of who God is. It that man rejects God rather than coming to Him. I don’t think that anyone here really thinks that we are making our own way to God without Jesus. But Jesus came for us. God declares himself to everyone.
We are without excuse because we are all able to come to Him.
Romans 5:18
Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life.
One man to condemn all and one man to redeem all who come. Not some of all. The uttermost. The absolute maximum. Any who come. The grace of God is not limited in power and ability. Man limits God.
Hebrews 7:25
Wherefore he is able also to save them to the uttermost that come unto God by him, seeing he ever liveth to make intercession for them.

God has revealed Himself to all indeed thru natural/general revelation, thru the creation itself, but that can ONLY led a sinner to believe that God exists, but to get saved, needs the specific revealtion of the Bible, and that is where spiritual blindness prohibits them coming to Christ as their savior and Lord "on their own efforts"