Is the KJV too difficult?

[SovereignGrace]

I am posting this for the readers, not for those still replying to me. I stepped out of the discussion because it had reached the point where nothing new was being said. The arguments were being repeated in loops, and the replies had shifted from substance to personal accusations. When a discussion becomes repetitive and the focus turns to claiming victory rather than addressing the text, there is no value in continuing.

The continued replies after I left show exactly why I stepped out. They are not attempts to advance the argument. They are attempts to keep the performance going, and that is all it is, performance. The language of “thrashings” and “taking his ball and going home,” the extreme quote stacking, the constant reframing of my words, the shifting of categories to avoid direct answers, and the false claims about my motives and about my position on the KJV and the preserved text are not theological argument. They are posturing. They are strutting. They are attempts to frame the discussion as a contest that must be won, even after the actual exchange has ended.

The readers can see the pattern. When someone stops replying and the other side continues posting in rapid succession, it is not debate. It is fixation. It is an attempt to claim victory by volume rather than by truth. I am not interested in that. I am not responding to it. I am not reading it.

My position was stated clearly. Their arguments were answered directly. The replies that followed did not address those answers. They repeated the same claims, reframed my words, shifted categories, and added personal remarks. That is why I stepped out. Not because the arguments stood, but because they had already been answered and the discussion had degraded into noise.

And that is all any further replies will be, posturing, strutting, false claims and much noise.

This post is akin to "The lady doth protest too much!" But its a guy instead. And breaking into a soliloquy and saying "'Tis now the very witching time of night!"

 

[Mike B]

The KJV's use of "Word" in John 1 is not an adequate representation of the Greek idea it was used to communicate in English.

You've got me confused here. In what version of John 1 do they use something other than "Word"?

 

[37818]

It has not been proven that the KJV has a better and more accurate rendering of every original-language word of Scripture in the preserved stream than any one of the pre-1611 English Bibles.

The modern English has thrown out the singular pronouns, thee, thy, thou, thine. A meaning in the Hebrew, Aramaic and Creek. Which is part of translation!

 

[JonC]

You've got me confused here. In what version of John 1 do they use something other than "Word"?

Define "word".