Here's my problem. Obviously the KJV is English, but only about 18% of the world speaks English, and for a very large percentage of that it is their second language, not their heart language. Like I tell people, there is no Japanese KJV because it is English and their language is Japanese.
If I chose to be snarky I would say "so what." But i don't want to be and so I will just say that for the first 2500 years of human history not a single soul had the first word of inspired scripture. After that, only those of Israel had any scripture. You might say the Edomites and Ninevites had some prophecies about them but it was the preaching of Obadiah and Nahum to them and not the writing. What was said to them was written later and became books in the Hebrew OT scriptures and was written in Hebrew. I don't know what language they used in preaching to these guys but just for the fun of it try to imagine being a citizen of Nineveh and watching an old Jew get off his donkey on Front Street and start his street preaching with the following words;
1 The burden of Nineveh. The book of the vision of Nahum the Elkoshite.
2 God is jealous, and the LORD revengeth; the LORD revengeth, and is furious; the LORD will take vengeance on his adversaries, and he reserveth wrath for his enemies.
3 The LORD is slow to anger, and great in power, and will not at all acquit the wicked: the LORD hath his way in the whirlwind and in the storm, and the clouds are the dust of his feet.
This is not a salvation message and I think after hearing the sermon as a citizen I am looking for a road out of town.
What is my point? Bibles and scriptures are not for unsaved people else God would have given them out. Scriptures are for believers. Obadiah and Nahum were believers. The proof is they did the preaching. God trusted them with his words. Preaching is for the unsaved.
On the other hand, Bible believing Christianity is alive and well in China, though persecuted. One of my Chinese college students is there right now for the summer, serving Christ. There is no such thing as a "Chinese KJV." But does somehow the authority of the KJV extend to China? Or, in your view is the authority of the KJV universal?
I do not know anything about China or Japan or Korea. except they are in the east. They are all Shemites. I know this is the year 2024 AD and Christianity was introduced early in the first century AD and all these eastern nations with their governments have been anti God and anti Christ for most of these centuries and I know that God the Father did not choose Paul, the apostle to the gentiles, to make one of his missionary campaigns to any of the people of the East or the South. God set him up in a church in Syria, the land of Abraham's nativity, as his base and he went to lands controlled by the Roman government, sons of Japheth. On his second missionary journey he had this great big world around him and where would he go, east, west, north, or south? God said for him to go west to Europe, and he did.
Here are the last words that Luke recorded Paul preaching to his countrymen, the Jews in the book of the Acts;
23 And when they (the Jews he had sent for) had appointed him a day, there came many to him into his lodging; to whom he expounded and testified the kingdom of God, persuading them concerning Jesus, both out of the law of Moses, and out of the prophets, from morning till evening.
24 And some believed the things which were spoken, and some believed not.
25 And when they agreed not among themselves, they departed, after that Paul had spoken one word, Well spake the Holy Ghost by Esaias the prophet unto our fathers,
26 Saying, Go unto this people, and say, Hearing ye shall hear, and shall not understand; and seeing ye shall see, and not perceive:
27 For the heart of this people is waxed gross, and their ears are dull of hearing, and their eyes have they closed; lest they should see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and understand with their heart, and should be converted, and I should heal them.
28 Be it known therefore unto you, that the salvation of God is sent unto the Gentiles, and that they will hear it.
Who are the gentiles? Well, Paul said he was sent to the gentiles and he went west. I have tracked God in his scriptures and he always seems to move west. Who is in the west? the Japhetic families. He even says when he returns in the heavens he is as the lightening, from the east to the west. God even wrote his NT in a European language. The first non Jew who was saved by the gospel of Christ was an Italian soldier by the name of Cornelius. The people he has trusted from the beginning of the Christian era to believe his word and to preach it to others are those people in the west and I am glad that after 20 centuries the eastern nations are finally getting a Bible in their own languages but it sure seems to me like it is a westerner who has initiated it after some people there believed the preachers. those people need a Bible in their language now that they are saved. The church is called to be God's ambassadors to all nations and families and peoples.
Please prove exegetically that the leaven there refers to a Bible translation.
I did not say it did but I will say the leaven can and does include Bible translations and paraphrases.
So Tyndale and his wonderful translation did not bring salvation to the West? And Wycliffe, the "morning star of the Reformation," did not bring salvation to the West with his wonderful translation?
Well did they?
Pretty negative and English-centric view. Are you aware at all of the revivals occurring around the world in languages other than English? Did you know that over 40% of Korea is now Christian?
How broad is the word "Christian" and how are you defining it? I am very glad that these Asians are truly being saved but God did not make them the evangelists to the world during the first century. He said, and I quoted, he would send his salvation to those who will hear it.
