Salamander: //Hmmm? I hear the same arguement, against Scripture,
that says there is no "scriptural" proof for KJVOism,
but where is Scriptural proof that it isn't?//
2Ti 3:16-17 (KJV1611 Edition):
All Scripture is giuen by inspiration of God,
& is profitable for doctrine, for reproofe, for correction,
for instrution in righteousnesse,
17 That the man of God may be perfect,
throughly furnished vnto all good workes.
"Instrution"?
BTW, in 1611 'perfect' mean 'complete',
in 2006 'perfect' can also mean 'without error'.
Um, complete still means perfect today. Since perfection is only determined by opinion by today's standards, it is thus required to know what the word actually means. It is the Word of Giod that perfects the man. It is his adherence to the precepts of the Word that completes his perfection.
Maybe you should try Trotter's icon of beating his head against his desk, that might make your arguement complete?
'All Scripture' includes the KJVs but is NOT limited
to the King James Versions.
The verse is speaking of all Scripture contained in the Word of God, but that cannot be said about versions that change the Word or omit passages that make the Word clear.

raying:
This has been pointed out BEFORE in this very topic.
This is the scripture whereby I justify studying my
Holy Inerrent, Preserved Written Word(s) of God
in my HCSB = Christian Standard Bible /Holman, 2003/.
Your opinion.
If I were to waste my time, I am certain that I would find discrepensies in your opinion's version. I find none in the KJB.

raise: :Fish:

raise: