Is there a difference between judging a person and blaspheming a person?

[DHK]

OK, lets talk about your underailed thread that you redefined. The verse you use for the definition of blasphemy is John 10:33, not John 10:30. So the question is, according to your own definition, if the Jews knew what blasphemy was, why did they keep committing it? How was Stephen stoned for blasphemy? Did he claim he was God? He did claim Christ was God, but since He is, how is that blasphemy? Christ did not go to the cross for blasphemy. It is kind of difficult for God to commit blasphemy against Himself.

Had you said in the understanding of the Jews, all these people committed blasphemy, then you would have been less wrong. Read the Scripture and learn what context means.

I did say in the understanding of the Jews in a former post. I simply don't feel I have to repeat myself every post. And it may not have been the exact wording that you want me to use.

In reference to both Stephen and Christ false witnesses were used.
In reference to Stephen:

Acts 6:11 Then they suborned men, which said, We have heard him speak blasphemous words against Moses, and against God.
Acts 6:13 And set up false witnesses, which said, This man ceaseth not to speak blasphemous words against this holy place, and the law:

If you study chapter seven, you will find that Stephen, in his sermon defends himself against these three accusations:
1. Blasphemy against Moses.
2. Blasphemy against the Temple.
3. Blasphemy against the Law.
--Moses was God's spokesman; the Temple, God's dwelling place; and the Law, God's Word. Thus the blasphemy is still ultimately against God. After defending himself against three counts of blasphemy he was stoned.

Concerning Jesus:
Matthew 26:61 And said, This fellow said, I am able to destroy the temple of God, and to build it in three days.
Matthew 26:64 Jesus saith unto him, Thou hast said: nevertheless I say unto you, Hereafter shall ye see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven.
Matthew 26:65 Then the high priest rent his clothes, saying, He hath spoken blasphemy; what further need have we of witnesses? behold, now ye have heard his blasphemy.

John 10:33 The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.

Mark 2:3 And they come unto him, bringing one sick of the palsy, which was borne of four.
Mark 2:5 When Jesus saw their faith, he said unto the sick of the palsy, Son, thy sins be forgiven thee.
Mark 2:7 Why doth this man thus speak blasphemies? who can forgive sins but God only?

Mark 2:9 Whether is it easier to say to the sick of the palsy, Thy sins be forgiven thee; or to say, Arise, and take up thy bed, and walk?
10 But that ye may know that the Son of man hath power on earth to forgive sins, (he saith to the sick of the palsy,)
11 I say unto thee, Arise, and take up thy bed, and go thy way into thine house.
--He was a man. He demonstrated that he was God. Therefore he was accused of blasphemy. This happened over and over again.

If you claim to be God, I too will accuse you of blasphemy. But, unlike the Pharisees, I will be correct.

 

[Yeshua1]

A dictionary defines words.

That is the sin of murder correctly defined by Jesus in Matthew 5. It is not blasphemy.

Do you believe the assumption Mary and her immaculate assumption as well? Just because the RCC says so does not make it so! I trust the dictionary more than the RCC.

Then why are you relying on the RCC to define blasphemy for you?
Do they also define theotokos for you? Do you believe all their doctrines?
Why not just join them?
We use dictionaries for a reason.

Does that make it right?

First, if one has cursed God, he has blasphemed God. So you are wrong on that account. Blasphemy, by its very definition is insulting God.
Second, if you insult God in any way, you are attacking the work of God, are you not?
Third, When Jesus was accused of blasphemy in John 10:30ff the Jews were correct in their assessment: "...because thou art a man and makest thyself God." That is blasphemy, well defined by the Jews. The place where they were wrong is that they were unwilling to admit that Christ was the Messiah--God. Your definition doesn't hold up.

Then why do it?

Think in the biblical sense of the term, Blashemy is to be against the revealled truths of scripture, as to deny the cardinal truths would be to insult God himself!

Denying jesus is God, rose from dead, died for sinners, Saved by Gtrace alone thru faith alone, basically, any who refuse the true God and the true Gospel !