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Is this a contradiction?
- Thread starter Pastor_Bob
- Start date
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You have yet to prove that any are inaccurate. The KJV is not as pure as you state, and this has been shown time and time again by not only myself, but Dr. Bob, C4K, and others on these forums. Willful blindness is ludicrous and not faith, but rather stupidity on the part of the person who stays that way.
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The evidence proves it on its own, as the truth exposes the lie. It has been shown. Now it is up to those to whom it has been shown to make that determination. It is evident, and it has been shown, but it is ultimately you who has to come to acknowledge it, and admit it, instead of ignore it and reject it.
You are correct, willful blindness is not faith, and shows stupidity on the part of this person. I have faith that God has provided us HIS infallible and inerrant words of truth in our own language. To believe otherwise, is not faith but doubt, and is being willfully blind.
Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
You have yet to prove that any are inaccurate. The KJV is not as pure as you state, and this has been shown time and time again by not only myself, but Dr. Bob, C4K, and others on these forums. Willful blindness is ludicrous and not faith, but rather stupidity on the part of the person who stays that way.
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The evidence proves it on its own, as the truth exposes the lie. It has been shown. Now it is up to those to whom it has been shown to make that determination. It is evident, and it has been shown, but it is ultimately you who has to come to acknowledge it, and admit it, instead of ignore it and reject it.
You are correct, willful blindness is not faith, and shows stupidity on the part of this person. I have faith that God has provided us HIS infallible and inerrant words of truth in our own language. To believe otherwise, is not faith but doubt, and is being willfully blind.
Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
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Do you have an ignorant faith or a faith that can be shared with others? The Bible gives us a rich faith that can be shared with others and communicated intelligently so others can understand. If people could not understand then how would they know what to believe through His word?
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The faith I have, is the same faith that is expressed in Hebrews 11. You should read it. You are right, the Bible, and ONLY from the Bible can our Faith come from. I believe I have God's Bible 100% to which my FAITH in this issue comes from. Do you?
love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
Do you have an ignorant faith or a faith that can be shared with others? The Bible gives us a rich faith that can be shared with others and communicated intelligently so others can understand. If people could not understand then how would they know what to believe through His word?
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The faith I have, is the same faith that is expressed in Hebrews 11. You should read it. You are right, the Bible, and ONLY from the Bible can our Faith come from. I believe I have God's Bible 100% to which my FAITH in this issue comes from. Do you?
love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
You keep saying that it has been proven, it has been shown, it is evident. Then you throw the ball in our court.
NOTHING has been shown by you. All you have done is quoted many verses unrelated to the issue.
You will not answer the tough questions such as what was God's perfect English word in 1590? Why, because you don't have an answer. So, you say something like, I wasn't there how would I know, or just completely IGNORE us.
You cannot explain the 400+ changes in the 1611 to 1769 Oxford. These are NOT typos and spelling changes that we are referring to, there are thousands of those. So, you theory of "word-for-word" accuracy is shot down, but you won't answer it except to say the 1611 is the same at the 1769 even though WE have proven that not to be the case.
The ball is NOT in our court, you have yet to show scripture that is relevant to translations, period.
In short, concerning your last paragraph.
You are wrong!
NOTHING has been shown by you. All you have done is quoted many verses unrelated to the issue.
You will not answer the tough questions such as what was God's perfect English word in 1590? Why, because you don't have an answer. So, you say something like, I wasn't there how would I know, or just completely IGNORE us.
You cannot explain the 400+ changes in the 1611 to 1769 Oxford. These are NOT typos and spelling changes that we are referring to, there are thousands of those. So, you theory of "word-for-word" accuracy is shot down, but you won't answer it except to say the 1611 is the same at the 1769 even though WE have proven that not to be the case.
The ball is NOT in our court, you have yet to show scripture that is relevant to translations, period.
In short, concerning your last paragraph.
You are wrong!
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We have HISTORICAL evidence we have the Word of God. We have testimony of Jesus, we have thousands upon thousands of ancient documents that all say the same thing within 98% of each other and the parts that are different are irrelevant. We know what God's Word is, but we don't do it by some "burning in the bossom" feeling. YES, we have faith in what we believe. But, logic precedes faith. Just as I told you your husband will have to go through before he develops that faith. You cannot just have faith in NOTHING, you must have a basis for that faith and our basis is all of the witnesses of Jesus Christ performing miracles, dying on the cross, rising again and being seen by many, many people. Therefore, we are back to logic, then faith.
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Logic does not proceed faith. IN fact, my husband disagrees with you on this (there is hope for him yet). My husband understands quite well what faith is. This has been an encouragement for me, even though he does not yet have it. He does seem to understand this much better than you, which is very ironic. I don't have faith in nothing. I have God's words to which I have received my faith from, and my faith is understanding God and his logic and wisdom, not my own false one.
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We do NOT believe we have His words 100%, only a few KJVo do that. We believe we have an inerrant translation of His doctrines, stories and the other information He wants us to have. We also have it in new translations. Your feelings are irrelevant because Joseph Smith had feelings. (or said he did). Mormon's have a feeling every time they test out their book of Mormon, the ole burning in the bossom.
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Please read Hebrews 11. Then please tell me where God has said this? God has said the opposite of what you have said above. You must have faith in what God has said, in order to believe it. You are sadly trying to reason yourself against this TRUTH.
love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
We have HISTORICAL evidence we have the Word of God. We have testimony of Jesus, we have thousands upon thousands of ancient documents that all say the same thing within 98% of each other and the parts that are different are irrelevant. We know what God's Word is, but we don't do it by some "burning in the bossom" feeling. YES, we have faith in what we believe. But, logic precedes faith. Just as I told you your husband will have to go through before he develops that faith. You cannot just have faith in NOTHING, you must have a basis for that faith and our basis is all of the witnesses of Jesus Christ performing miracles, dying on the cross, rising again and being seen by many, many people. Therefore, we are back to logic, then faith.
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Logic does not proceed faith. IN fact, my husband disagrees with you on this (there is hope for him yet). My husband understands quite well what faith is. This has been an encouragement for me, even though he does not yet have it. He does seem to understand this much better than you, which is very ironic. I don't have faith in nothing. I have God's words to which I have received my faith from, and my faith is understanding God and his logic and wisdom, not my own false one.
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We do NOT believe we have His words 100%, only a few KJVo do that. We believe we have an inerrant translation of His doctrines, stories and the other information He wants us to have. We also have it in new translations. Your feelings are irrelevant because Joseph Smith had feelings. (or said he did). Mormon's have a feeling every time they test out their book of Mormon, the ole burning in the bossom.
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Please read Hebrews 11. Then please tell me where God has said this? God has said the opposite of what you have said above. You must have faith in what God has said, in order to believe it. You are sadly trying to reason yourself against this TRUTH.
love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
I know I have a Bible that is correct and leaves out no doctrines and can give you numerous reasons why.
You still said, "I believe." Those kind of answers will not go far with non-believers. They want answers. It is more than just "I believe" but "I believe and here are reasons why."
Sometime read Hebrews 11:6. In the OT and NT times only about one to two percent of the people could even read. Scrolls were extremely expensive and the fact that few people could read doesn't agree with your idea that faith comes from reading the Bible. Faith does not come from reading the Bible but from God and trusting Him.
I had faith enough to believe long before I knew much about the Bible. In fact I had discussion with people about God long before I knew Acts ever existed. Read Romans 1 about being without excuse.
Heb. 11 is filled with proof of their faith. Not just because I knows.
The entire Bible communicates. So we ought to be able to explain our faith if we know the Bible. God does not leave us empty handed when we know Him.
Sometime read the book The Debate Strategies of Jesus Christ. The author stresses the need to know scripture to debate.
If you are going to convince any of us or anyone else that you are right and we are wrong then do your homework checking out every source you quote for yourself and then share with us your findings.
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You will not answer the tough questions such as what was God's perfect English word in 1590? Why, because you don't have an answer. So, you say something like, I wasn't there how would I know, or just completely IGNORE us.
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I have answered this question, on more than one occasion, to which you are now ignoring, and then you reasoned away with your own human reasoning and then try to bind me and others to that.
love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
You will not answer the tough questions such as what was God's perfect English word in 1590? Why, because you don't have an answer. So, you say something like, I wasn't there how would I know, or just completely IGNORE us.
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I have answered this question, on more than one occasion, to which you are now ignoring, and then you reasoned away with your own human reasoning and then try to bind me and others to that.
love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
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You cannot explain the 400+ changes in the 1611 to 1769 Oxford. These are NOT typos and spelling changes that we are referring to, there are thousands of those. So, you theory of "word-for-word" accuracy is shot down, but you won't answer it except to say the 1611 is the same at the 1769 even though WE have proven that not to be the case.
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I have explained this to you and then I even gave you links to others explanations of this to which you are now ignoring, to which you again, reasoned away with your own human reasoning and tried again, to bind us to that. Please read Hebrews 11.
love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
You cannot explain the 400+ changes in the 1611 to 1769 Oxford. These are NOT typos and spelling changes that we are referring to, there are thousands of those. So, you theory of "word-for-word" accuracy is shot down, but you won't answer it except to say the 1611 is the same at the 1769 even though WE have proven that not to be the case.
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I have explained this to you and then I even gave you links to others explanations of this to which you are now ignoring, to which you again, reasoned away with your own human reasoning and tried again, to bind us to that. Please read Hebrews 11.
love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
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The ball is NOT in our court, you have yet to show scripture that is relevant to translations, period.
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Indeed I have also done this, many times, to which I have also explained with my own words, to which you are now ignoring.
love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
The ball is NOT in our court, you have yet to show scripture that is relevant to translations, period.
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Indeed I have also done this, many times, to which I have also explained with my own words, to which you are now ignoring.
love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
GeneMBridges
New Member
Posted by Michelle:
Logic does not proceed faith. IN fact, my husband disagrees with you on this (there is hope for him yet). My husband understands quite well what faith is. This has been an encouragement for me, even though he does not yet have it. He does seem to understand this much better than you, which is very ironic.
This doesn't surprise me, michelle, because your view of faith and logic as being in opposition and not complementary is, in point of fact, the very thing that unregenerate men believe about faith. It is the same kind of "human wisdom" regarding matters of faith, including what faith is and how faith and logic work together, that Scripture talks about when it condemns human wisdom. I would not take your husband's support of you in this matter as an affirmation of your correctness. It's actually an affirmation of your incorrectness with regard to this.
I say again, faith and logic can not be in opposition, because it is against the nature of God to be illogical. God is perfectly logical. He requires faith. Since God requires faith of us, and God can't be, use, or have illogic in him, faith and logic must be complementary, or else God would be requiring something of us that contradicts one of His own attributes!
Logic does not proceed faith. IN fact, my husband disagrees with you on this (there is hope for him yet). My husband understands quite well what faith is. This has been an encouragement for me, even though he does not yet have it. He does seem to understand this much better than you, which is very ironic.
This doesn't surprise me, michelle, because your view of faith and logic as being in opposition and not complementary is, in point of fact, the very thing that unregenerate men believe about faith. It is the same kind of "human wisdom" regarding matters of faith, including what faith is and how faith and logic work together, that Scripture talks about when it condemns human wisdom. I would not take your husband's support of you in this matter as an affirmation of your correctness. It's actually an affirmation of your incorrectness with regard to this.
I say again, faith and logic can not be in opposition, because it is against the nature of God to be illogical. God is perfectly logical. He requires faith. Since God requires faith of us, and God can't be, use, or have illogic in him, faith and logic must be complementary, or else God would be requiring something of us that contradicts one of His own attributes!
Michelle, I don't want to get into a debate regarding the steps your husband needs to go through, I will pray for him but I was using a description of what I had to go through so I appologize if it was out of line for me to say it that way.
Since that has yet to be resolved, then I don't think we should use it as an issue either way.
Your husband may disagree, but that is where we will have to differ because those were not the steps that I went through. Logic came first, faith second.
I have read Hebrews 11 many times, but you have still provided no evidence to put the ball into our court. You keep preaching faith, but there are so many cults with faith that we would be stupid to follow whoever says they have "the right faith or the right way". We have the Scriptures and as I answered in another post, that is what we use.
If it is not scriptural then we do not accept it. A single translational theory is not Biblical regardless of how many scriptures you post. Those scriptures are great, but they are not being used in the context they were written. They are being used by your opinion to show that scholars are blind and stupid.
Sorry, but you still don't answer my question where the Bible was in 1590? If there was one for every generation, then where is it during that time?
Since there are obvious errors (typos, whatever) then where was the word-for-word perfect bible of 1620?
Sorry, but there is just no scriptural evidence. You may think it is, but you cannot even explain why the parable of the bridesmaids has to do with translations. If it does, explain it. If you want to convince somebody of something, start providing information. Just your word for it means NOTHING. (Nor, should you just take the word for anybody here.) Base it on evidence provided.
Jesus didn't go to all of the trouble to leave all of the witnesses of both His Word and His life for us to ignore the facts and have "blind" faith. He wants us to have faith in something we can point to. He gave us a universe that is incredible that we look at and say, "yes, that's God's handiwork." He gave us FACTS. Men think in facts while many women think in emotional perspectives. To reach a man, you will not do it with emotions (with the exception of getting the man to appease the woman just to shut down the emotional outbursts). Now, is the time to provide the scriptural facts. God gave them to us and they are clearly in my NASB. The Word of God, just like the KJV is.
Since that has yet to be resolved, then I don't think we should use it as an issue either way.
Your husband may disagree, but that is where we will have to differ because those were not the steps that I went through. Logic came first, faith second.
I have read Hebrews 11 many times, but you have still provided no evidence to put the ball into our court. You keep preaching faith, but there are so many cults with faith that we would be stupid to follow whoever says they have "the right faith or the right way". We have the Scriptures and as I answered in another post, that is what we use.
If it is not scriptural then we do not accept it. A single translational theory is not Biblical regardless of how many scriptures you post. Those scriptures are great, but they are not being used in the context they were written. They are being used by your opinion to show that scholars are blind and stupid.
Sorry, but you still don't answer my question where the Bible was in 1590? If there was one for every generation, then where is it during that time?
Since there are obvious errors (typos, whatever) then where was the word-for-word perfect bible of 1620?
Sorry, but there is just no scriptural evidence. You may think it is, but you cannot even explain why the parable of the bridesmaids has to do with translations. If it does, explain it. If you want to convince somebody of something, start providing information. Just your word for it means NOTHING. (Nor, should you just take the word for anybody here.) Base it on evidence provided.
Jesus didn't go to all of the trouble to leave all of the witnesses of both His Word and His life for us to ignore the facts and have "blind" faith. He wants us to have faith in something we can point to. He gave us a universe that is incredible that we look at and say, "yes, that's God's handiwork." He gave us FACTS. Men think in facts while many women think in emotional perspectives. To reach a man, you will not do it with emotions (with the exception of getting the man to appease the woman just to shut down the emotional outbursts). Now, is the time to provide the scriptural facts. God gave them to us and they are clearly in my NASB. The Word of God, just like the KJV is.
Let me ask a personal question that might sting a bit, but I think it might get to the core of this.
Would you rather see your husband as a MVer and a Christian? Or believing what you believe about faith, but not accepting it?
My point is, Michelle, and I mean this in all Christian love. It appears that your KJVo push is becoming such a strong issue in your life that maybe you are allowing the major issue of the gospel come in second.
I am not making any accusations just opinions based on observations that I want you to think about. This is NOT intended to upset you. I just want you to think about what is going on here.
Would you rather see your husband as a MVer and a Christian? Or believing what you believe about faith, but not accepting it?
My point is, Michelle, and I mean this in all Christian love. It appears that your KJVo push is becoming such a strong issue in your life that maybe you are allowing the major issue of the gospel come in second.
I am not making any accusations just opinions based on observations that I want you to think about. This is NOT intended to upset you. I just want you to think about what is going on here.
But your husband will not put his trust in a fairy tale. He must understand what God wants and maybe reasons why he needs to trust God. Obviously he is not convinced yet. So he is not completely understanding faith in Christ either. If he fully understood he would either reject Christ or embrace Him. Look at Judas and Matthew. Look at the contrast.
Your argument would depend on the person. To say one must have faith first is to limit God and His ability to work. As for me I had logic first. Faith did follow. My first two years in college were spent as a Physics major. I saw many formulas having constants. God used that to prick my mind and cause me to think. It happened sometime before I put my faith in Christ. Faith and absolute trust in Christy comes through a series of smaller decisions. My wife is very much the same way. She got her B.S. in a science.
What is communication if it isn’t so often a series of logical steps and then drawing a conclusion that we can follow.
I am not willing to limit God by saying what comes first. For some it is trust without almost no reason. Look at a child. But for others it is reason and explanation. Look at what Josh McDowell does on college campuses across the U.S. Shout stomp and spit doesn’t work too well with college students.
What works well with one may not work very well with another. God uses all kinds of people and al kinds of messages aimed at the same Jesus. Look at Paul and compare him to Peter. Look at their education level and their temperaments.
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You still said, "I believe." Those kind of answers will not go far with non-believers. They want answers. It is more than just "I believe" but "I believe and here are reasons why."
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This discussion is between believers, not unbelievers and believers. You should know what I am talking about and I approach you in this manner. My duty as a christian to unbelievers, is not to show them the accuracy of the words of God. It is to share with them the gospel of Jesus Christ, to which God's words are shared, and it is God's words that do the convicting. My duty is not to prove to them God's words are true. God's words do this on their own. My duty is only to share God's words with them - showing them the scriptures and rightly dividing the words of truth. Showing them prophecies and how they were fulfilled. I am to never prove the scriptures are true, but rather that Jesus Christ is the Son of God according to the scriptures and that we are sinners in need of redemption, according to the scriptures. That Jesus shed his innocent blood, just as God had promised, according to the scriptures. That Jesus rose from the dead on the third day and ascended up into heaven, according to the scriptures. That Jesus will resurrect us according to the scriptures. Shall I continue?
love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
You still said, "I believe." Those kind of answers will not go far with non-believers. They want answers. It is more than just "I believe" but "I believe and here are reasons why."
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This discussion is between believers, not unbelievers and believers. You should know what I am talking about and I approach you in this manner. My duty as a christian to unbelievers, is not to show them the accuracy of the words of God. It is to share with them the gospel of Jesus Christ, to which God's words are shared, and it is God's words that do the convicting. My duty is not to prove to them God's words are true. God's words do this on their own. My duty is only to share God's words with them - showing them the scriptures and rightly dividing the words of truth. Showing them prophecies and how they were fulfilled. I am to never prove the scriptures are true, but rather that Jesus Christ is the Son of God according to the scriptures and that we are sinners in need of redemption, according to the scriptures. That Jesus shed his innocent blood, just as God had promised, according to the scriptures. That Jesus rose from the dead on the third day and ascended up into heaven, according to the scriptures. That Jesus will resurrect us according to the scriptures. Shall I continue?
love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
You are absolutely correct, but be aware of something. If the person you are witnessing to ONLY hears the gospel that is great, but if you put unwarranted limits on them such as KJVo, then that adds restrictions to that person's beliefs further restricting their ability to make a correct decision. If the theory is based solely on YOUR faith, then that will add doubt. This is why we are so concerned about the KJVo issue.
It can be very limiting to both God and man who is reaching for God. I mean this in all sincerity and the love of God.
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I say again, faith and logic can not be in opposition, because it is against the nature of God to be illogical. God is perfectly logical. He requires faith. Since God requires faith of us, and God can't be, use, or have illogic in him, faith and logic must be complementary, or else God would be requiring something of us that contradicts one of His own attributes!
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I am not going to get into this whole debate again, but I will say this. You are basically telling me that my faith that God has provided me his words 100%, to which comes from God's mouth himself, is illogical. There goes human reasoning for ya.
love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
I say again, faith and logic can not be in opposition, because it is against the nature of God to be illogical. God is perfectly logical. He requires faith. Since God requires faith of us, and God can't be, use, or have illogic in him, faith and logic must be complementary, or else God would be requiring something of us that contradicts one of His own attributes!
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I am not going to get into this whole debate again, but I will say this. You are basically telling me that my faith that God has provided me his words 100%, to which comes from God's mouth himself, is illogical. There goes human reasoning for ya.
love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
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You are absolutely correct, but be aware of something. If the person you are witnessing to ONLY hears the gospel that is great, but if you put unwarranted limits on them such as KJVo, then that adds restrictions to that person's beliefs further restricting their ability to make a correct decision. If the theory is based solely on YOUR faith, then that will add doubt. This is why we are so concerned about the KJVo issue.
It can be very limiting to both God and man who is reaching for God. I mean this in all sincerity and the love of God.
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If an unbeliever senses, or sees, in any way, shape or form, that I doubt God's words, in any way, THIS is what will do the damage. If I do not have faith in God's words myself, that they are HIS words 100%, and 100% the truth, that I am sharing with them, it shows I have not faith at all, and my efforts are in vain, and so is my faith.
Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
You are absolutely correct, but be aware of something. If the person you are witnessing to ONLY hears the gospel that is great, but if you put unwarranted limits on them such as KJVo, then that adds restrictions to that person's beliefs further restricting their ability to make a correct decision. If the theory is based solely on YOUR faith, then that will add doubt. This is why we are so concerned about the KJVo issue.
It can be very limiting to both God and man who is reaching for God. I mean this in all sincerity and the love of God.
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If an unbeliever senses, or sees, in any way, shape or form, that I doubt God's words, in any way, THIS is what will do the damage. If I do not have faith in God's words myself, that they are HIS words 100%, and 100% the truth, that I am sharing with them, it shows I have not faith at all, and my efforts are in vain, and so is my faith.
Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
DeafPosttrib
New Member
Michelle,
Stop and think.... How the people got saved through many centuries long time before 1611 A.V. translated?
Were people saved because of English Bible?
Philip is correct. Hebrews 12:2 tells us, Jesus Christ is our captian of the faith, author and finish. We look up at him alwasy, not looking down on these issues. Issues do not helping people to becoime saved. We need focus on the gospel of Jesus Christ to people to become saved. Gospel means preaching on the death, buried, and resurrection of Jesus Christ. That what the gospel is for.
In fact, Early Church during in the First Century, they do not have New Testament books. How were people became saved without having New Testament books?
What about Noah, and Abraham?
The fact tells us, the canon of the Old Testament books were not being canon together till I think in around year 300 to 200 B.C. that is nearly 4,000 years since creation! Wow!
So, my point is, Abraham, Noah, and other saints were saved by their faith toward God without seeing. Same with Bible. These were not yet canon till year between 300 B.C. to 100 B.C. Many people in year between 4000 B.C. to 400 B.C. , they were saved by faith - how? Through the prophets.
Same as Early Church, during First Century to Third Century, many people were saved by heard the gospel through Christians"prophets".
See? My point.
Do not focus on Versions or KJV issue. That issue does not helping our profitable and the gospel for Christ's sake.
Your husband needs Christ, he only have to faith on Jesus Christ, what He have done for us on the cross and his ressurection. Just believing on Christ.
In Christ
Rev. 22:20 -Amen!
Stop and think.... How the people got saved through many centuries long time before 1611 A.V. translated?
Were people saved because of English Bible?
Philip is correct. Hebrews 12:2 tells us, Jesus Christ is our captian of the faith, author and finish. We look up at him alwasy, not looking down on these issues. Issues do not helping people to becoime saved. We need focus on the gospel of Jesus Christ to people to become saved. Gospel means preaching on the death, buried, and resurrection of Jesus Christ. That what the gospel is for.
In fact, Early Church during in the First Century, they do not have New Testament books. How were people became saved without having New Testament books?
What about Noah, and Abraham?
The fact tells us, the canon of the Old Testament books were not being canon together till I think in around year 300 to 200 B.C. that is nearly 4,000 years since creation! Wow!
So, my point is, Abraham, Noah, and other saints were saved by their faith toward God without seeing. Same with Bible. These were not yet canon till year between 300 B.C. to 100 B.C. Many people in year between 4000 B.C. to 400 B.C. , they were saved by faith - how? Through the prophets.
Same as Early Church, during First Century to Third Century, many people were saved by heard the gospel through Christians"prophets".
See? My point.
Do not focus on Versions or KJV issue. That issue does not helping our profitable and the gospel for Christ's sake.
Your husband needs Christ, he only have to faith on Jesus Christ, what He have done for us on the cross and his ressurection. Just believing on Christ.
In Christ
Rev. 22:20 -Amen!