Silverhair
Well-Known Member
Thats my answer. Post 11 you understand it ?
But your answer as per post # 11 is not biblical.
"He fully executed the Divine Purpose, did everything required that saved all for whom He died, all them which had been given Him by the Father before the foundation, not one of them shall be lost."
The question is not if I understand your post # 11
"He fully executed the Divine Purpose, did everything required that saved all for whom He died, all them which had been given Him by the Father before the foundation, not one of them shall be lost."
The question is do you understand what the bible says?
Joh_3:17 ... but that the world through Him might be saved.
1Jn_2:2 And He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the whole world.
1Ti_4:10 ...we trust in the living God, who is the Savior of all men,
1Ti_2:6 ...who gave Himself a ransom for all, {cf 1Ti_2:3-4}
Rom_5:6 ... Christ died for the ungodly.
Rom_5:8 ... while we were still sinners, Christ died for us.
1Pe_3:18 For Christ also suffered once for sins, the just for the unjust,
2Co_5:19 that is, that God was in Christ reconciling the world to Himself {cf 2Co_5:21}
Col_2:12 buried with Him in baptism, ...raised with Him through faith...
So if we were to hold to your view that Christ "saved all for whom He died" then we would have to believe in universalism. Do you believe in universalism BF? I hope not.
Since what the bible says contradicts what you are saying then it is time for you to change what you are saying.