Your difficulty is in the fact that you arbitrarily define goodness and perfection as being equal in power and authority with God.
Are the angels holy? Yes, yet they are not God's equals.
Was Adam good? Yes, but neither was he God's equal.
Good and holy and perfect does not mean incorruptible, and the corruptibility of men and angels was due not to some oversight on God's part, but to His eteranl plan and purposes.
But we have something the angels don't, and that is God as our Father. The angels were made, we are begotten. That which is born of God is a partaker of His nature, and is incorruptible.
I know what good and holy mean, they mean without sin. In fact, this is what I have argued for months concerning Romans 3 to Calvinists. When God says there is none that doeth good, no, not one, he is speaking of sinless perfection, he is not saying that man is utterly incapable of doing some good. We know this because Jesus himself said man can do good.
Lk 6:32
For if ye love them which love you, what thank have ye?
for sinners also love those that love them.
33
And if ye do good to them which do good to you, what thank have ye?
for sinners also do even the same.
Jesus showed here that sinners can do good. They can love those who love them. Loving someone who loves you is not evil, it is good. Jesus simply showed it is much better to love all men, even those that hate you. That does not negate that loving those who love you is good.
In fact, if unsaved man is incapable of doing good, how could it be said that they "love" anybody? Love is good by definition. If unsaved man were truly incapable of doing any good, then he could not love anyone except himself. But Jesus showed sinners do love others.
And in vs. 33 Jesus directly said that sinners can do good.
So, how can you reconcile scripture that says no man doeth good, no, not one, with scripture where Jesus said sinners can do good? It must be understood when God says no man doeth good it is speaking of sinless perfection, not utter inability to do any good.
The scriptures also say holy men wrote the scriptures. Were they sinless? No. They were holy because they were believers and were justified in God's sight.
2 Pet 1:21 For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man:
but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.
David was a prophet, he wrote much scripture. Was he sinless? No, he committed adultery and had Uriah killed in battle to cover his sin. He was hardly sinless, but the scriptures say the prophets were holy men. They were holy because they were justified by faith, not because they were sinless in reality.
