Jesus Had His Hands Tied

[glfredrick]

You are probably correct, but I only know English. If indeed the KJV is incorrect, then it has been incorrect for hundreds of years and God evidently saw no reason to change it.

Here it is in the ESV, a favorite among Calvinists (I am also fond of this version).

BTW, I am not saying that God could not work if He desired, just that He has chosen not to work in these instances.

Let me add: Thank you for your input. I know you are trying to be helpful.

Robert, this is not a translation issue. It is an issue of hermeneutics and also of grammatical structure. You are placing the cart before the horse, even when it is plainly written in the opposite order in all the various translations. Unless you can demonstrate an exegetical cause and effect, i.e., the great unbelief of the people CAUSED the inability of Jesus, then your point is invalid, for the remark about their unbelief seems to stem from a broad brush stroke about the people in general, not specifically tied to Jesus actions or lack thereof.

Like I said. Love and read the Word, but don't twist it around. Let it speak in the proper order and say what it says.