I was expecting this passage... and again I understand the objection.DHK said:She wasn't "good enough". Therein is one objection. "There is none good, no not one. And that includes Mary. Theotokos is a heretical doctrine that gives undue glory and even deification to Mary, honor that is due only to God. To rob God of his glory is sin. She was a vessel used of God in a point in history. There have been many men and women used of God: Moses, Abraham, Ruth, Joshua, Isaiah, etc. But undue attention is given to Mary only because she was used in a different manner than the rest of these individuals who also lived by faith and obeyed, submitting themselves to the will of God.
The Apostle Paul also says in the same Epistle that "all Israel will be saved" (11:26). Does this mean that there will be an apocatastasis? Will all Israel in fact be saved?
In another Epistle to the Corinthian Church, the Apostle Paul tells them that they "were enriched in everything by Him in all utterance and all knowledge". (1 Corinthians 1:5). Does this mean that everything the Corinthian Church knew and said was inspired by God? Then why does the same Apostle rebuke the Church in Corinth in the same Epistle for being "still carnal. For where there are envy, strife, and divisions among you, are you not carnal and behaving like mere men?" (1 Corinthian 3:3)?
Elsewhere, we read: "And they both [Zechariah and Elizabeth] were 'righteous' in the sight of God, walking blamelessly in 'all' the commandments and requirements of the Lord" (Luke 1:6).
In the sight of God, who cannot look upon any sin, they both were 'righteous'...
So, yes we do read: "As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one"
But is this literally true? Didn't God say Noah was Righteous? (Genesis 7:1) Was God wrong?
So we see a foreshadow (i.e. a type) of Mary in Hannah. Does this mean that Hannah is Mary's equal? We also find a foreshadow of our Lord Jesus in King David. Does this mean that David is an equal to Jesus Christ? I would argue that to use the foreshadows of Mary and Jesus against them is reckless and does grave harm to our Faith but perhaps you feel it is more important to sew doubt concerning Mary even at the expense of Jesus Himself?Read 1Sam.1. Hannah said the same things.
I have never spoken of Mary's sinfulness or sinlessness so it is unclear to me why you argue this point. It is a Consensual Teaching that Mary's righteousness was imputed by Grace through Faith even in the Earliest Church Teaching. We cannot turn to the most extreme positions (Immaculate Conception) and speak of consensus. When we speak of the Consensual Teachings of the Church we are looking at 'all' the teachings and seeking the canon (i.e. measure). I am not speaking about the Canon of the Scriptures but the 'true' canon or measure which enlightens us to a fruitful encounter with the Scriptures. Some call this Holy Orthodoxy... Others call it Holy Tradition.Mary of her own admission needed a Saviour, and admitted that she was a sinner. She even brought a sin-offering to the priest. Bringing forth the Lord did not make her any more holy. God could have chosen any young Jewish maiden at that time. Mary was not sinless. He chose Mary. Why? We don't know, and the Bible doesn't say. The act of choosing didn't give Mary salvation. She had to believe God for her salvation just like everyone else. You are reading too much into the Scriptures.
We should open a new topic title simply 'heresy' because I encounter it 'a lot' here and yet question if the 'inmates have taken over the Asylum' in this regards. No historical study of the consensual teachings would agree with you in your assertion I'm not sure if you and others honestly understand this.And much of what you refer to the "Early Church" was heretical.
And yet we believe that the Holy Spirit dwells in every Believers... And yet we believe that we are participates in the 'Body of Christ'... Sons of God... not only Sons... but Heirs. Heirs of what?Origen was declared a heretic even by the Catholic Church. The Jews knew that there is only One God, and so did the Christians. We are not polytheistic in our beliefs.
Perhaps you misunderstand the Teaching of Theosis (i.e. Deification). It is simply the recognition that we, as lovers of Christ, all naturally wish, and are commanded to be perfect. The Lord commands: 'Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect' (Matt. 5:48). And the Apostle Paul admonishes: "In malice be ye children, but in understanding be men' (I Cor. 14:20). Eslewhere he says: "Stand perfect and complete in all the will of God' (Cor. 4:12); and again: 'Let us go on unto perfection' (Heb. 6:1). The same commandment is also found in the Old Testament. Thus God says to Israel in Deuteronomy: 'Thou shalt be perfect with the Lord thy God' (Deut. 18:13). And David advised his son Solomon: 'And thou, Solomon my son, know thou the God of thy father, and serve him with a perfect heart and with a willing mind' (1 Chron. 28:9). After all this we cannot fail to see that God demands from Christians the fullness of perfection, that is, that we should be perfect in all virtues.I hope you are not. To deify Mary is sin. It is idolatry. Your above statement is wrong. The early church did not deify Mary; perhaps the early Catholics, the early heretics, but not the early believers.
If God asks this of us then surely God also provides a means to achieve it... and the only means that know to achieve perfection is with and in Christ who is our brother, the first of many.
Yes, we can see in Mary a type for every Christian. It would only be our humility and recognition of our distance from God's Holiness which would cause us to pause in comparing ourselves to Her but I see your point and I agree.Sanctification simply means to "set apart." Every Christian is set apart at the time of salvation, and as they grow in Christ there is a process of sanctification that ought to be going on in that believer's life. It also has the meaning of being holy. "holy, set apart" Mary was set apart to perform a particular service for God. And she accomplished it. She did the will of God. Any obedient Christian would do the same, and still does.
It is more Scriptural than you know.And that is not a Scriptural view.
There is only 'one Church' and 'one Body of Christ' though there be 'many parts' there are still 'all one'.You have a misunderstanding of "the Church." What Church?"
[qoute]God works through local churches which he has ordained in this day and age, just as in the Old Testament, he ordained the Temple to be the symbolic dwelling place of God.[/quote]
Symbolic? Do you also believe the Ark was 'symbolic'?
And yet we are not polytheists. We just claim that every believer is 'the' temple of God (except Mary). :laugh:I do not say that the church building is the symbolic dwelling place of God. It isn't, and that isn't the definition of a church. The believer is called the temple of God (1Cor.6:19,20), and those believers who voluntarily unite themselves together to carry out the ordinances of Christ and to obey the Great Commission form a church. God works through local churches, not denominations which are not found in the Bible.
Neither is 'Trinity'... yet we claim it as Doctrine.Theotokos is not found in the Bible.
Elisabeth spoke to Mary: "And how have I deserved that this honor should be granted to me, that the mother of my Lord should come to me" (Luke 1:43)?
As I have stated before, I'm not an apologist, I understand your convictions in upholding the identity of this Baptist Forum. I know you've spent a great deal of time crafting a body of knowledge that would serve you in defending your Faith as your Tradition has taught you. I'm only pointing out that there is a body of knowledge that is older and more complete than being 'a Baptist' it's called being 'a Christian' and it holds to the Consensual Teachings of the Church of the Living God as it was from the beginning, is now and will ever be.
Be Well.
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