Pastor Larry said:
That isn't what Scripture teaches. You will find nowhere in Scripture where the church which is the body of Christ is equated with Israel. If you have a place, I will be glad to look at it. So far, I haven't seen one.
Can you show a verse where the Church and Israel are shown to be two distinct bodies? According to scripture, Gentiles are grafted into ISRAEL: not just "members of the Church".
The FACT is that the term "body of Christ", is synonymous with Israel.
Jews and Gentiles and equal in the church, but not in Israel. If you read the OT, you will see that very clearly. Gentiles as proselytes were not given full rights in Israel.
Not only have I studied it, I have had formal classes on every book of the Old Testament: why must you belittle others who refuse to hold to your racist theology?
The fact is, you are WRONG. When someone was circumcised, they became as a "native of the land"; a true Israelite. It was only the "Gentiles" which was the same as "sojourners" who had restrictions. The Pharisees and scribes ADDED this racist stuff; it is not found in the Tanakh.
So if that is true in Joshua, why is the promise repeated more than 1000 years later?
Don't you even read the text? Specifically it is the promise of a specific piece of land which was fulfilled. There was more than one promise in the Bible.
So was there racism with God when he chose Israel over all other nations? Of course not.
Not at all. Because ANYONE could receive circumcision and become "a native of the land" (i.e. a full Israelite).
Your argument makes no sense.
Not to someone brainwashed by dispensationalism, I guess.
When the Bible says there is no distinction, you have to give a reference so we can look at it. the Bible uses that terminology two ways that I can think of: 1) with respect to judgment ... both Jew and Gentile are sinner and God does not respect persons; 2) with respect to believers in the church. To my knowledge, God never makes that statement with respect to his promises to Israel.
You are separating things, and completely misunderstanding the verses. The Bible isn't saying that He treats "two groups equally regarding salvation". It says there isn't even a DISTINCTION between Jew and Gentile! If there is no way of distinguishing between a Jew and Gentile, how can they be held to two different promises?
BTW, where does it talk about two separate promises in the New Testament again?
Where did I claim differently? Again you are confusing things. Those of faith are Abraham's offspring in the gospel. But the promises were made to Abraham's genetic seed in Genesis 17, specifically not non-genetic seed.
The promise made to Abraham is ours, according to Paul. Remember what Jesus said :
Mat 3:9 And do not presume to say to yourselves, 'We have Abraham as our father,' for I tell you, God is able from these stones to raise up children for Abraham.
Do you doubt the words of Christ?
My answer is just read the text careully. Paul's point there is about his "kinsmen according to the flesh." That is not you and I as Gentiles. It is Jews. This is so simple I can't imagine you even ask that. I suppose I should cease to be amazed but somehow I never am.
Again, let's just look at the text: It says, "For not all who are descended from Israel belong to Israel," It does not say, "For not all who "belong to Israel are descended from Israel." Or to put it this way, you are affirming something the text doesn't address. It says nothing about whether or not "Israel" has some from outside of genetic Israel in it. I think it doesn't, but the text doesn't say that. The text simply says that everyone in one group (descended from Israel) are in another group ("Israel"). It says nothing about who else might or might not be in the second group.
This makes no sense whatsoever. Why would one ACTUALLY DESCENDED from Abraham, need to be
"COUNTED AS OFFSPRING"? :laugh: Your really reaching with that one.
Is English your second language? Perhaps you would do well buying a Bible that is in your home language. Your interpretation is in direct opposition to what the text actually says.
The point of Romans 9 is that one does not have salvation simply by being an ethnic Jew. It takes more, not less.
As I have shown, that idea is foreign to the text. The point of Romans 9 is that Israel is and has always been according to the individual election of God, and not according to any physical descent. the text SPECIFICALLY says that it election to Israel is not "according to the flesh", but all the children of the promise are "counted" (not actually, in each case) as offspring.
Perhaps I could suggest some books on hermeneutics?
:BangHead: