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John's gospel uses the Greek word translated world to mean humanity

SavedByGrace

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Reformed1689 said:
Again, no credibility for you.
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again, your attitude is very childish! you cannot refute what I write, so you insult and disregard anything that is against what you personally believe, regardless of whether it is Biblical or not, as you and others have done for John 3:16-18, which is very clear AGAINST reformed theology on salvation!
 
Reformed1689

Reformed1689

Well-Known Member
SavedByGrace said:
nothing about arrogance. You and a few others on here, continue to attack my knowledge of Hebrew and Greek, and have till date not been able to show just ONE thing that I have written, that is wrong! It is very unChrist-like to do what you guys do, when you cannot back up your nonsense! This is worse than little kids behave.
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Why should we? We give evidence and you declare yourself the infallible expert without any training.
 
Reformed1689

Reformed1689

Well-Known Member
SavedByGrace said:
again, your attitude is very childish! you cannot refute what I write, so you insult and disregard anything that is against what you personally believe, regardless of whether it is Biblical or not, as you and others have done for John 3:16-18, which is very clear AGAINST reformed theology on salvation!
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I'm not talking about theology. I'm talking about the DEFINITION of kosmos.
 
SavedByGrace

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Reformed1689 said:
Why should we? We give evidence and you declare yourself the infallible expert without any training.
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dude, as I have said before, you do come out with some rubbish sometimes!

I have NEVER claimed to be "infallible", so this is a LIE on your part, which you should as a brother in the Lord, retract and apologise for.

What do you mean by "tranining"? Some perfer to be taught by a teacher in a class, while others like myself, prefer to do things the hard way, from books. Whether it is somene telling you from books, or you doing it yourself, with the Holy Spirit, I see no problem of difference. The end result is what really counts. Prove my Hebrew and Greek to be wrong, and I will stand corrected! How many posting on here about theology, have been to Bible school and taught theology? How many are in your Church? If they are content to learn by reading the Bible and books for their theology, then what is the difference if they do so for languages?

Your resasoning is MOOT!
 
SavedByGrace

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Reformed1689 said:
I'm not talking about theology. I'm talking about the DEFINITION of kosmos.
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J H Thayer

“the inhabitants of the earth, the human race” (Lexicon, p.357)

W Ardnt & F Gingrich

“the world as mankind…of all mankind, but especially of believers, as the objects of God’s love” (Lexicon, p.447)

Edward Robinson

“the world for the inhabitants of the earth, men mankind” (Lexicon, p.440)

John Parkhurst

“The world, i.e. the whole race of mankind, both believers and unbelievers, both good and bad” (Lexicon, p.336)

S T Bloomfield

“the world for its inhabitants, mankind” (Greek Lexicon, p. 227)

G Kittle and G Friedrich

“The cosmos is the universe (Jn.3:16-17, Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, One Vol. Ed., p. 464)

W E Vine

“the human race, mankind” (Expository Dictionary, p. 685)

Add to these John Calvin

“That whosoever believeth on him may not perish. It is a remarkable commendation of faith, that it frees us from everlasting destruction. For he intended expressly to state that, though we appear to have been born to death, undoubted deliverance is offered to us by the faith of Christ; and, therefore, that we ought not to fear death, which otherwise hangs over us. And he has employed the universal term whosoever, both to invite all indiscriminately to partake of life, and to cut off every excuse from unbelievers. Such is also the import of the term World, which he formerly used; for though nothing will be found in the world that is worthy of the favor of God, yet he shows himself to be reconciled to the whole world, when he invites all men without exception to the faith of Christ, which is nothing else than an entrance into life.”


And another Reformed theologian, Robert Dabney

“In Jno.iii.16, make ‘the world’ which Christ loved, to mean ‘the elect world’, and we reach the absurdity, that some of the elect may not believe, and perish…since Christ made expiation for every man” (Systematic Theology, p.525)

It is VERY CLEAR to those who want to know the TRUTH of the Bible, that in verse 16, John means, "every single human being". Only theology will prevent anyone from accepting this TRUTH!
 
Reformed1689

Reformed1689

Well-Known Member
SavedByGrace said:
I am using CONTEXT, do you know what this means?
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Oh I definitely know what it means. Do you even remember why you are having this argument? It is because rather than simply acknowledging what the word is, YOU let your theology get in the way and have gone off on a STUPID AND FOOLISH rampage.
 
V

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Reformed1689 said:
Technically it never MEANS humanity. But can be used to DESCRIBE humanity in its usage.
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Used for the purpose of meaning means it technically means, among other things, humanity. That is why Lexicons say the word is used to mean humanity.
 
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