I'll acknowledge that without hesitation.
But Hodge is not disagreeing with my view in these quotes- period.
Hodge believed, as I do, that the value of the sacrifice of Christ was so great that it was more than sufficient for every man who would ever be born.
If I have a gold nugget worth one million dollars I have something that is sufficient in value to feed every person in my county for a year, but if many of them do not take it as I offer it then they could starve to death that very year.
The substitution part is applicable only to the elect. There on the cross he ACTUALLY atoned for our sins- not potentially. He would apply that atonement as he sees fit at a certain point in our lives.
Though the death of Christ is sufficient for all men in this world and a thousand worlds like it
ad infinitum it only saves the elect and only actually atones for their sins.
I think what you are trying to do, whether ignorantly or with chicanery, is misrepresent Hodge's view as one which has Christ dying for every sinner who'd ever live and paying for the sins of every sinner who'd ever live.
This simply is not so.
Here is
Hodge:
Here Hodge is arguing that it would have been a waste and a lack of foresight on God’s part to have Jesus die for individuals he had not chosen to salvation. Or put differently: It would not have made sense for Jesus to die for those He never intended to save. Thus, any attempt to separate particular election from limited atonement involves an inherent contradiction.
Furthermore Hodge said:
Then he goes on to prove that Christ did not die to save all men but rather he died to save the elect only.
He says things like:
and...
and...
I suspect you'll want to close the thread now...