-
Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.
Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.
We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!
Just Something I Read
- Thread starter Baptist4life
- Start date
Did you or your friend even bother to read the entire chapter? Probably not. Read the following twice, once with the word "yet" and once without. There is no "theological" difference in the context.
After this, Jesus went around in Galilee, purposely staying away from Judea because the Jews there were waiting to take his life. But when the Jewish Feast of Tabernacles was near, Jesus' brothers said to him, "You ought to leave here and go to Judea, so that your disciples may see the miracles you do. No one who wants to become a public figure acts in secret. Since you are doing these things, show yourself to the world." For even his own brothers did not believe in him.
Therefore Jesus told them, "The right time for me has not yet come; for you any time is right. The world cannot hate you, but it hates me because I testify that what it does is evil. You go to the Feast. I am not (yet) going up to this Feast, because for me the right time has not yet come."
Having said this, he stayed in Galilee. However, after his brothers had left for the Feast, he went also, not publicly, but in secret.
Harold Garvey
New Member
The point is the Greek shows what the English confirms.
It is a nuance of translation. If you look hard enough using a word for word expectation you will never see why the KJV was translated with such accuracy.:thumbsup:
Harold Garvey
New Member
Harold Garvey
New Member
Yeah, anyone who stands on the KJV is worthy of the wrath of anyone else.
Harold Garvey
New Member
It's found in the KJV as the grammatical flow should be. why object to it?
Look at the rest of the verse...
NASB 8 "Go up to the feast yourselves; I do not go up to this feast because My time has not yet fully come."
That is the same as saying "yet"...
Unless you think the "time" he is talking about is some other time... like his crucifixion...
But then it would be hard to explain why he went at all, using this excuse to not go in the first place...
To me the verse is clear, Jesus isn't going until the time for him to go...
In other words.. he wasn't going yet.
Sorry Tim, but it is not the same thing. The text says "I do not go up to this feast". It says He is not going to the feast, period. It does not imply that He will go later.
If I tell you that I'm not going to church Sunday, that means I'm not going.
Thank you Amy! Finally someone who can see the difference!
Marcia
Active Member
We are not supposed to be dummies when we read the Bible.
He did not go the Feast with this brothers when they went. Clearly, that is what He meant when He said he was not going, and he was not going publicly, which was an issue. He went later, and not publicly. It's just a matter of looking at the context.
He did not go the Feast with this brothers when they went. Clearly, that is what He meant when He said he was not going, and he was not going publicly, which was an issue. He went later, and not publicly. It's just a matter of looking at the context.
But if you tell me at 6:30 Sunday morning that you are not going to church because the time has not come yet... It would mean, when the time comes to go to church, then you may go....
Same here.. Jesus said he is not going because his time has not come yet to go.
So when the brothers left, he didn't go.. UNTIL the time came for him to go....
NaasPreacher (C4K)
Well-Known Member
I thought you wanted a non-bashing thread?
Well, I'll just keep in mind that if you guys ever tell me you're not going to do something, that you really mean you're not going to do it "yet". 
"Are you going at eat that last piece of pizza?"
"No, I am not going to eat it".
So Amy eats it.
"Hey! I meant I wasn't going to eat it yet!" :laugh:
"Are you going at eat that last piece of pizza?"
"No, I am not going to eat it".
So Amy eats it.
"Hey! I meant I wasn't going to eat it yet!" :laugh:
But you left off the qualifying statement that Jesus added...
"Because my time has not come"... or ...
To paraphrase..."I'm not going because it's not time for me to go yet"....
So.. (And I like your pizza example) You would say "I am not going to eat, because the time has not come yet" I would not call you a liar later when the time for you to eat pizza came...
BTW... The right time to eat pizza is when I am around.
"Because my time has not come"... or ...
To paraphrase..."I'm not going because it's not time for me to go yet"....
So.. (And I like your pizza example) You would say "I am not going to eat, because the time has not come yet" I would not call you a liar later when the time for you to eat pizza came...
BTW... The right time to eat pizza is when I am around.
Why the 'crack' about some supposed 'wrath?'
The issues (if there are even real issues, here) is [#1] 'How the Greek is rendered?' and I submit that both textual renderings (as shown far back in posts # 5 & 7) are generally accurately rendered in the English versions, making [#2] 'Which text best represents the autographs?' the 'issue,' at least here.
IMO, the above 15 versions I cited, apart from the KJVs, do most accurately give the better rendering, this placing themselves right along with the TR and KJV, in this instance.
So please, let's give an honest assessment to the question, as opposed to some 'version bashing,' even if only by some (not so subtle) implication.
Face it, several of the so-called "MVs" are in exactly the same place as the KJV, at least on this verse, as I have now shown. :thumbsup:
Ed
How about rather, what do the various versions say regarding the phrase (or verse) in question. (Incidentally, the KJVT sidenotes had nothing additional to say about this verse.) YET here are some other renderings for John 7:8, that somehow seemed to get ignored by the source the OP quotes, in a sideways attempt by the source to support one version (and take a 'free-shot' at others), at least IMO.
Have you seen it YET?
The issues (if there are even real issues, here) is [#1] 'How the Greek is rendered?' and I submit that both textual renderings (as shown far back in posts # 5 & 7) are generally accurately rendered in the English versions, making [#2] 'Which text best represents the autographs?' the 'issue,' at least here.
IMO, the above 15 versions I cited, apart from the KJVs, do most accurately give the better rendering, this placing themselves right along with the TR and KJV, in this instance.
So please, let's give an honest assessment to the question, as opposed to some 'version bashing,' even if only by some (not so subtle) implication.
Face it, several of the so-called "MVs" are in exactly the same place as the KJV, at least on this verse, as I have now shown. :thumbsup:
Ed