Originally posted by Daniel Dunivan:
What is the content of revelation and what is its relationship to the bible?
First, let me say I will not be exhaustive. I will give only very surface answers, due to the nature of this forum. The Bible is revelation. Some have called it merely the record of revelation, but that in a real sense is a distinction without a difference. The Bible is the revelation from God. PLenary inspiration does not mean dictation. If I understood on your use of "dictation" I apologize.
How could the Bible be inspired as you describe it (to the very words if you will read your own position) and not be a complete revelation of God's person? If God cannot err, can God be incomplete?
Because truth does not require exhaustivity. I can say 2+2=4 but that is not exhaustive. It depends on a number of other things as well (like the laws of math and the consistency of the universe), ultimately the existence of God. Your assumption appears to be that my position is that perfection/inerrancy requires completion. This is not true. Inerrancy affirms that the Bible has no errors in whatever it talks about. It does not affirm anything with respect to what the Bible does not talk about. For instance, it has rightly been said that the Bible is not a science book. However, that does not mean it is in error when it speaks about science. Inerrancy means that when it speaks about science or scientific (or historical or whatever else) matters, it is inerrant in what it actually says.
Historians in fact say that inerrancy as everyone today describes it is a function of the enlightenment--thus they have only been giving your answer for about 200 years.
But I think many of these historians would say that inerrancy was not an issue until the enlightenment and there was therefore no reason to address it in depth. This is indeed the case with many doctrines which are delineated only at the time in which they come into controversy. The enlightenment brought attacks on Scripture that needed to be defended. Therefore inerrancy became an issue. This historical development of doctrine is well known phenomenon of theological history.
]And I think our position is that you are the ones who fail to acknowledge known facts, and therefore come up with the inconsistent hermenutic.
But you have yet to show where our hermeneutic is inconsistent. The fact that you can voice an (ill-informed??) opinion does not negate the viability of the truth. Nor does your ability to articulate an opinion about my hermeneutic invalidate my hermeneutic. I think my hermeneutic is the only consistently defensible ones.
The hermeneutic you use enables you to pick and choose, without necessary argumentation, what you choose to believe as real and what it myth (in your sense of the word). For instance, Joshua (and probably you) have denied many of the miracles of Scripture. Yet the greatest miracle of all is clearly affirmed (the resurrection). When asked what makes hte resurrection different, Joshua argues that its closeness to the fundamentals of the faith mean that it must be true (I know I have greatly oversimplified here). But when asked on what basis he makes that distinction, he can provide no other reason than the fact that his mind will only allow that belief. He cannot consistently supply a hermeneutic that allows him to take some at face value while ignoring others. That is a textbook definition of "inconsistent hermeneutic."
What could you mean by known facts?
That which conforms to reality.
You mean to say that you know the bible is inerrant in the same way that we know sacrificing your child because you promised God is wrong?
A great many disagree with your interpretation that your reference here. The Bible does not explicitly say one way or the other and the Bible does not condone human sacrifice even if you are right. You have simply read something into the text to support your view. But that is not in the text. Assuming you are referring to Jepthath, I have no idea what he did because we are not told. Why import your opinion into this verse? Why not leave at "This happened but we are not exactly how and we are not given God's reaction to this occasion."
As I have pointed out in other places, holding the bible as inerrant comes from the presuppositions the reader takes to the text and cannot be a logical deduction from the text, because there is no instance when you would allow inconsistancies to prove your position is false.
While I disagree at face value, I question whether your position is any difference. You will not allow the explanation of inerrancy because it condemsn human understanding. Here you have placed your own human understanding over the Bible and read the Bible from your presuppositions about it. I can argue that my position on the Bible is drawn from teh Bible itself. At the heart of the issue is, what does God-breathed and borne along by the Holy Spirit really mean? You believe one thing, I believe another.
Joshua says, in effect, that the Bible is a collection of things that Yahwists have found significant over the years. But that cannot suffice for a number of reasons, not the least of which is the closed canon and the absence of other writings which are referenced as legitimate and informative. Aside from inspiration and the "borne along" ministry of the Holy Spirit, there is no explanation for why these 66 books out of the myriads of myriads of other books. That can only be attested by the nature of Scripture as God's revelation. There is no reason for these books to be preserved, except for their nature as "from God."
I would argue that not much real thought is being put into arguments like that. They stem from precommitments to theological necessities, rather than from the objective study of the issues involved. That is the danger in explorative theology.