Justified by the Law is a Scriptural Truth

[The Biblicist]

Lu 10:25 And, behold, a certain lawyer stood up, and tempted him, saying, Master, what shall I do to inherit eternal life?......28 And he said to him, You have answered right: this do, and you shall live.


Lu 18:18 And a certain ruler asked him, saying, Good Master, what shall I do to inherit eternal life?.....Mt.19:Jesus said to him, If you will be perfect,

Rom. 2:6 Who will render to every man according to his deeds:
7 To them who by patient continuance in well doing seek for glory and honor and immortality, eternal life:
8 But to them that are contentious, and do not obey the truth, but obey unrighteousness, indignation and wrath,
9 Tribulation and anguish, on every soul of man that does evil, of the Jew first, and also of the Gentile;
10 But glory, honor, and peace, to every man that works good, to the Jew first, and also to the Gentile:
11 For there is no respect of persons with God.
12 For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law;
13 (For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified.


In all three cases justification by the law for eternal life is not viewed by Christ or Paul as unbiblical. Indeed, Christ told the Lawyer if he could do the law he would live.

The Rich Young ruler claimed he had kept the law from his youth up and so he asks what do I lack. Jesus said "if thou wilt be perfect" (which defines what keeping the Law requires - being perfect) he was to go sell all that he has, give it to the poor and come follow him, which is really what the Law requires to "be perfect" total sell out of self-reliance and complete submission to God.

To the Romans, Paul describing those who believe they can come to God on the basis of self-righteousness (Rom. 2:3) that if they "by patient continuance in well doing" that the "doers of the law shall be justified."

Not that "perfect" people can become righteous by law keeping but rather the law will DECLARE "perfect" people righteous as it requires perfection to keep the law.

With regard to declaring fallen men righteous by the works of the law, the weakness is not in the law but in those who are SINNERS. However, a sinless Jesus Christ can be and was DECLARED to be righteous by the Law of God. Keeping the law did not make him any more righteous than he already was by his holy nature but it did DECLARE Him righteous.

Furthermore, these three Biblical illustrations prove that the Jews believed in a righteousness obtained by law keeping and that Jesus believed that eternal life would be the consequence of keeping the Law. He only denied that sinners could be declared righteous by the Law.

When God covenanted with Israel, Israel covenanted with God that they would keep the law and therefore right from the beginning Israel regarded keeping the Law in order to satsify God's standard of righteousness as possible. God's only response to their covenant commitment was that they lacked the right heart to do so (Deut. 5:29). That is the state of all in Adam - none righteous and therefore the Law can justify "no flesh."

However, Christ was not born of man, but of God and the law declared him righteous as the fit substitute for sinners and thus obtained the righteousness demanded by the law not for himself but for sinners.

 

[The Biblicist]

NT Wright and those who adopt his covenant works theory are wrong! They are wrong about their definition of "justification by works" and "the works of the law" that it does not refer to a moral righteousness obtained by law keeping as both Jesus and Paul affirm that is precisely how it was understood within Israel in the apostolic era.

They are also wrong about the definition of the term "works" used in Romans 4:1-5 as this is a PRE-covenant use of the term "works" that "pertains to the flesh" prior to both the Abrahamic and Mosaic covenant. Jesus rightly defines "works" as the moral or immoral determinative attitude, words and actions of the heart of men rather than a covenant framework proposed by Wright and his followers.

 

[The Biblicist]

Death is only the condemnation of the law and so is not applicable to sinless beings whether angels or men. Hence, anyone that keeps the Law as God intended eternal life is theirs by nature of their sinlessness. That is why Jesus said that no man takes his life from him, but that he laid it down and he laid it down because he was MADE TO BE SIN (2 Cor. 5:21) and justly deserved death as our sins were laid on him LEGALLY.

 

[th1bill]

Lu 10:25 And, behold, a certain lawyer stood up, and tempted him, saying, Master, what shall I do to inherit eternal life?......28 And he said to him, You have answered right: this do, and you shall live.


Lu 18:18 And a certain ruler asked him, saying, Good Master, what shall I do to inherit eternal life?.....Mt.19:Jesus said to him, If you will be perfect,

Rom. 2:6 Who will render to every man according to his deeds:
7 To them who by patient continuance in well doing seek for glory and honor and immortality, eternal life:
8 But to them that are contentious, and do not obey the truth, but obey unrighteousness, indignation and wrath,
9 Tribulation and anguish, on every soul of man that does evil, of the Jew first, and also of the Gentile;
10 But glory, honor, and peace, to every man that works good, to the Jew first, and also to the Gentile:
11 For there is no respect of persons with God.
12 For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law;
13 (For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified.


In all three cases justification by the law for eternal life is not viewed by Christ or Paul as unbiblical. Indeed, Christ told the Lawyer if he could do the law he would live.

The Rich Young ruler claimed he had kept the law from his youth up and so he asks what do I lack. Jesus said "if thou wilt be perfect" (which defines what keeping the Law requires - being perfect) he was to go sell all that he has, give it to the poor and come follow him, which is really what the Law requires to "be perfect" total sell out of self-reliance and complete submission to God.

To the Romans, Paul describing those who believe they can come to God on the basis of self-righteousness (Rom. 2:3) that if they "by patient continuance in well doing" that the "doers of the law shall be justified."

Not that "perfect" people can become righteous by law keeping but rather the law will DECLARE "perfect" people righteous as it requires perfection to keep the law.

With regard to declaring fallen men righteous by the works of the law, the weakness is not in the law but in those who are SINNERS. However, a sinless Jesus Christ can be and was DECLARED to be righteous by the Law of God. Keeping the law did not make him any more righteous than he already was by his holy nature but it did DECLARE Him righteous.

Furthermore, these three Biblical illustrations prove that the Jews believed in a righteousness obtained by law keeping and that Jesus believed that eternal life would be the consequence of keeping the Law. He only denied that sinners could be declared righteous by the Law.

When God covenanted with Israel, Israel covenanted with God that they would keep the law and therefore right from the beginning Israel regarded keeping the Law in order to satsify God's standard of righteousness as possible. God's only response to their covenant commitment was that they lacked the right heart to do so (Deut. 5:29). That is the state of all in Adam - none righteous and therefore the Law can justify "no flesh."

However, Christ was not born of man, but of God and the law declared him righteous as the fit substitute for sinners and thus obtained the righteousness demanded by the law not for himself but for sinners.

All of this, making the birth, sufferings, and the death of Jesus unrequired! Why did He come?

 

[The Biblicist]

All of this, making the birth, sufferings, and the death of Jesus unrequired! Why did He come?

Hey Bill, I am afraid I am not following you. The law cannot save sinners because they are under its condemnation. Some sinners just don't realize they are sinners (Lawyer, Rich Young Ruler) and that is why Jesus pointed them to the Law.

 

[Yeshua1]

Lu 10:25 And, behold, a certain lawyer stood up, and tempted him, saying, Master, what shall I do to inherit eternal life?......28 And he said to him, You have answered right: this do, and you shall live.


Lu 18:18 And a certain ruler asked him, saying, Good Master, what shall I do to inherit eternal life?.....Mt.19:Jesus said to him, If you will be perfect,

Rom. 2:6 Who will render to every man according to his deeds:
7 To them who by patient continuance in well doing seek for glory and honor and immortality, eternal life:
8 But to them that are contentious, and do not obey the truth, but obey unrighteousness, indignation and wrath,
9 Tribulation and anguish, on every soul of man that does evil, of the Jew first, and also of the Gentile;
10 But glory, honor, and peace, to every man that works good, to the Jew first, and also to the Gentile:
11 For there is no respect of persons with God.
12 For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law;
13 (For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified.


In all three cases justification by the law for eternal life is not viewed by Christ or Paul as unbiblical. Indeed, Christ told the Lawyer if he could do the law he would live.

The Rich Young ruler claimed he had kept the law from his youth up and so he asks what do I lack. Jesus said "if thou wilt be perfect" (which defines what keeping the Law requires - being perfect) he was to go sell all that he has, give it to the poor and come follow him, which is really what the Law requires to "be perfect" total sell out of self-reliance and complete submission to God.

To the Romans, Paul describing those who believe they can come to God on the basis of self-righteousness (Rom. 2:3) that if they "by patient continuance in well doing" that the "doers of the law shall be justified."

Not that "perfect" people can become righteous by law keeping but rather the law will DECLARE "perfect" people righteous as it requires perfection to keep the law.

With regard to declaring fallen men righteous by the works of the law, the weakness is not in the law but in those who are SINNERS. However, a sinless Jesus Christ can be and was DECLARED to be righteous by the Law of God. Keeping the law did not make him any more righteous than he already was by his holy nature but it did DECLARE Him righteous.


Furthermore, these three Biblical illustrations prove that the Jews believed in a righteousness obtained by law keeping and that Jesus believed that eternal life would be the consequence of keeping the Law. He only denied that sinners could be declared righteous by the Law.

When God covenanted with Israel, Israel covenanted with God that they would keep the law and therefore right from the beginning Israel regarded keeping the Law in order to satsify God's standard of righteousness as possible. God's only response to their covenant commitment was that they lacked the right heart to do so (Deut. 5:29). That is the state of all in Adam - none righteous and therefore the Law can justify "no flesh."

However, Christ was not born of man, but of God and the law declared him righteous as the fit substitute for sinners and thus obtained the righteousness demanded by the law not for himself but for sinners.

Any difference between this and the Covenant of Works made between God and Adam when He was created?

 

[th1bill]

Hey Bill, I am afraid I am not following you. The law cannot save sinners because they are under its condemnation. Some sinners just don't realize they are sinners (Lawyer, Rich Young Ruler) and that is why Jesus pointed them to the Law.

I belong to neither of the Main Camps but am a Bublicist. If the Bible says it, I believe it! For both of the main camps some scripture must be considered to be in error or incorrect.
It is my position that all of the scripture is the Word of God, bar none. This being the case verses that to the Natural Man are in conflict must be reconciled and that on a case by case instance by the Indwelling Holy Spirit.

The problem arises with our understanding of terms. People are contained within this Time/Space Continuum as are their thoughts, never considering that God is not contained here-in. God being on the Spiritual Level of existence is in an unknown to us realm. All we know of it is contained in the Bible he promises to keep pure in Duet. 4:2, in the end of Rev. 22 and one other that I no longer recall.

It is my position that God being Omniscient and Omnipotent knew how to complete the Book of Life before the Creation because He is, right now, through the Holy Spirit everywhere in this world! But that is nothing, with God He is also, right now in the past and the future. Before I was born, God was already there when my heart was finally broken and gave my everything over to His will.
Hope this helps and may God bless you and yours.

 

[The Biblicist]

I belong to neither of the Main Camps but am a Bublicist. If the Bible says it, I believe it! For both of the main camps some scripture must be considered to be in error or incorrect.
It is my position that all of the scripture is the Word of God, bar none. This being the case verses that to the Natural Man are in conflict must be reconciled and that on a case by case instance by the Indwelling Holy Spirit.

The problem arises with our understanding of terms. People are contained within this Time/Space Continuum as are their thoughts, never considering that God is not contained here-in. God being on the Spiritual Level of existence is in an unknown to us realm. All we know of it is contained in the Bible he promises to keep pure in Duet. 4:2, in the end of Rev. 22 and one other that I no longer recall.

It is my position that God being Omniscient and Omnipotent knew how to complete the Book of Life before the Creation because He is, right now, through the Holy Spirit everywhere in this world! But that is nothing, with God He is also, right now in the past and the future. Before I was born, God was already there when my heart was finally broken and gave my everything over to His will.
Hope this helps and may God bless you and yours.

I understand what you are saying, but how does this apply to the thread? I believe what the Bible says as well. Are you saying you are a KJV only advocate and reject the Greek and Hebrew scriptures? I am trying to see where you are coming from with regard to this thread and its subject?

 

[Aaron]

The law was added because of transgression. It teaches us our need for Christ.

 

[th1bill]

Aaron summed it up fairly with his comment but my first post was in reaction to the below quotes.

In all three cases justification by the law for eternal life is not viewed by Christ or Paul as unbiblical. Indeed, Christ told the Lawyer if he could do the law he would live.

To the Romans, Paul describing those who believe they can come to God on the basis of self-righteousness (Rom. 2:3) that if they "by patient continuance in well doing" that the "doers of the law shall be justified."

God the Son is all knowing and He did not give the Law for salvation but rather for a teacher, just as it is to us, today. Matthew 27:51-54 presents us with where the Old Testament Saints went when they died.

Coupled with the parable of the Rich Man and the Poor Man where the Righteous Poor Man goes to Paradise, not Heaven, we see the explanation of why the Early Creeds indicate that our Christ descended into the Bowels of the Earth and the Apostles Creed says He descended into Hell.

Those people/saints were awaiting the Savior and His Gospel.

 

[HankD]

Justified by the Law is a Scriptural Truth

Romans 3:20 Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin.

Galatians 2:16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.

Galatians 3:11 But that no man is justified by the law in the sight of God, it is evident: for, The just shall live by faith.

Galatians 5:4 Christ is become of no effect unto you, whosoever of you are justified by the law; ye are fallen from grace.

HankD

 

[Yeshua1]

Justified by the Law is a Scriptural Truth

Romans 3:20 Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin.

Galatians 2:16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.

Galatians 3:11 But that no man is justified by the law in the sight of God, it is evident: for, The just shall live by faith.

Galatians 5:4 Christ is become of no effect unto you, whosoever of you are justified by the law; ye are fallen from grace.

HankD

Adam was under a covenant of works before he fell, so one could be just in sight of God by keeping the Law IF did it perefectly all the time, and ONLY Jesus can do that!

 

[SovereignGrace]

If righteousness came from the Law, then Christ died in vain.[Galatians 2:21]

 

[The Biblicist]

Aaron summed it up fairly with his comment but my first post was in reaction to the below quotes.

Lk. 10:25 ¶ And, behold, a certain lawyer stood up, and tempted him, saying, Master, what shall I do to inherit eternal life?
26 He said unto him, What is written in the law? how readest thou?
27 And he answering said, Thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy strength, and with all thy mind; and thy neighbour as thyself.
28 And he said unto him, Thou hast answered right: this do, and thou shalt live.

Bill, the reason the law was "added" was to instruct in the knowlege of sin, but that in no way contradicts what Jesus says here. The weakness is not in the law but in the flesh. Jesus is using it to instruct this lawyer why he cannot obtain justification by law keeping. By telling him "this do, and thou shalt live" is true for sinless people but he is not sinless and to find that out he is instructed to "do this" and by attempting to do it he will find out he is a sinner who comes short of the Law's demand to be reckoned as righteous or sinless.

Coupled with the parable of the Rich Man and the Poor Man where the Righteous Poor Man goes to Paradise, not Heaven, we see the explanation of why the Early Creeds indicate that our Christ descended into the Bowels of the Earth and the Apostles Creed says He descended into Hell.

Those people/saints were awaiting the Savior and His Gospel.

This thread is not concerned about this issue and I don't want to derail this thread by taking on that issue. However, I will respond and if you want to open up another thread to discuss it, that is fine.

I am aware of this theory but that is all it is. Nowhere does scripture say "paradise" is not heaven, but just the opposite (2 Cor. 12:1-3). Nowhere does it say paradise is in hades but they are diametically distinguished from each other in the story of Lazerus and the rich man. David claimed that at death he would go to heaven and at death "fly away":

Psa. 73:23 Nevertheless I am continually with thee: thou hast holden me by my right hand.
24 Thou shalt guide me with thy counsel, and afterward receive me to glory.
25 Whom have I in heaven but thee? and there is none upon earth that I desire beside thee.

 

[Aaron]

Bill, the reason the law was "added" was to instruct in the knowlege of sin, but that in no way contradicts what Jesus says here. The weakness is not in the law but in the flesh. Jesus is using it to instruct this lawyer why he cannot obtain justification by law keeping. By telling him "this do, and thou shalt live" is true for sinless people but he is not sinless and to find that out he is instructed to "do this" and by attempting to do it he will find out he is a sinner who comes short of the Law's demand to be reckoned as righteous or sinless.

You're confusing the issue. You're making it sound as if the law can make the unrighteous righteous, and you're making it sound as if there were any man in history other than Christ who was righteous according to the law, and as if there may be.

"Justify" has more than one meaning, and you aren't being very clear in the meaning intended.

The Law, perfect as it is, cannot give life and cannot justify. The law can only kill and bring a curse. In that, it is limited and weak, and is unequal to Christ.

 

[th1bill]

You're confusing the issue. You're making it sound as if the law can make the unrighteous righteous, and you're making it sound as if there were any man in history other than Christ who was righteous according to the law, and as if there may be.

"Justify" has more than one meaning, and you aren't being very clear in the meaning intended.

The Law, perfect as it is, cannot give life and cannot justify. The law can only kill and bring a curse. In that, it is limited and weak, and is unequal to Christ.

Amen, that preaches!

 

[Yeshua1]

You're confusing the issue. You're making it sound as if the law can make the unrighteous righteous, and you're making it sound as if there were any man in history other than Christ who was righteous according to the law, and as if there may be.

"Justify" has more than one meaning, and you aren't being very clear in the meaning intended.

The Law, perfect as it is, cannot give life and cannot justify. The law can only kill and bring a curse. In that, it is limited and weak, and is unequal to Christ.

One could be Justified before God IF they kept it same fashion Jesus did, but NONE could ever do that except Him, as he was/is God Incarnate!

 

[The Biblicist]

You're confusing the issue. You're making it sound as if the law can make the unrighteous righteous, and you're making it sound as if there were any man in history other than Christ who was righteous according to the law, and as if there may be.

Aaron, I did not ask the question "What shall I DO to inherit eternal life" and I did not point to the Law and asked "what saith the commandments" and I did not give the answer "THIS DO and that shalt live". Your argument is not with me. I have merely repeated the Scripture.

Are you saying Christ was in error in pointing to the Law when being asked specifically what the lawyer could "DO" to "inherit eternal life"?

Are you saying Christ was in error in telling the Lawyer "THIS DO" and he "shall have life"?

It seems your view does not agree with Christ and so your issue is with Christ not me, I merely repeated his words to a specific question about LAW KEEPING!

"Justify" has more than one meaning, and you aren't being very clear in the meaning intended.

It is obvious from the question by the Lawyer and it is obvious by Christ pointing to the Law and it is obvious from Christ's answer that the law would declare righteous all who are sinless people. as all who are declared to be righteous by the law are not condemned by the Law, thus not under the penalty of death of the law and therefore as Jesus said, "shall live."

The Law, perfect as it is, cannot give life

No one said it could give life. It merely either condemns to death or declares uncondemned thus the uncondemned "shall live."

and cannot justify.

The law cannot MAKE sinners righteous but need not MAKE the sinless righteous but DECLARE so, and DECLARE them uncondemned and thus they "shall live"

What the law cannot do is "make" any unrightous person righteous but it can declare any righteous (sinless) person righteous IF such a person can be found and they "shall live" as they cannot be condemned by the law.

 

[The Biblicist]

Justified by the Law is a Scriptural Truth

Romans 3:20 Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin.

Galatians 2:16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.

Galatians 3:11 But that no man is justified by the law in the sight of God, it is evident: for, The just shall live by faith.

Galatians 5:4 Christ is become of no effect unto you, whosoever of you are justified by the law; ye are fallen from grace.

HankD

Hank, the law can and does declare God to be without sin, thus righteous. However, the law cannot make any unrighteous person righteous. The law does declare anyone without sin as righteous, thus not under condemnation, thus not under death, thus, if such can be found, they "shall live."

That is all that Christ is saying to this lawyer (and to the rich young ruler) who both believed they were law keepers. The Law does not condemn to death any who can keep the law according to God's definition of keeping it (not according to their definition). Brother, read my last two posts very carefully before responding as not a word I said contradicts any of the scriptures you quoted.

 

[Yeshua1]

Hank, the law can and does declare God to be without sin, thus righteous. However, the law cannot make any unrighteous person righteous. The law does declare anyone without sin as righteous, thus not under condemnation, thus not under death, thus, if such can be found, they "shall live."

That is all that Christ is saying to this lawyer (and to the rich young ruler) who both believed they were law keepers. The Law does not condemn to death any who can keep the law according to God's definition of keeping it (not according to their definition). Brother, read my last two posts very carefully before responding as not a word I said contradicts any of the scriptures you quoted.

Cursed is the one who does not keep and obey the Law, but would that not mean that the man who could fully keep it would be not guilty/cursed?