Featured King James vs the original Greek

Someone tried to "help out the text". just as they did for longer ending of mark and 1 John 5:7!

 

Doh, forgot to insert John 1:18 in that was what you said the KJB didn’t show the Deity of Jesus.
Then you said the ESV was much stronger so that would imply that you don’t see the KJB John 1:18 as not showing the deity but only that it’s just a weaker reading according to the ESV in your opinion?

 

Inspiration through preservation.

 

That sounds like your in a “click.”

 

Inspiration doesn't always follow in the same set of tracks.

"thou shalt not kill" and "do not murder" have a different number of words.

800 words that amount to what?

 

The Superintendence of The Holy Spirit and comparison of various manuscripts did not include every word, word for word, and when variations Give the Inspired Will of God, they Live on, in Their LIFE, or not. 99.9% unquestionableness and 1% irrelevant
attempts that are correctable from before and behind, prove the point.

All exceptions prove the point of being Given by God.

 

The compound Greek word, "μονογενής", is literally, "one of a kind, unique", and has nothing to to with any "begetting". Had John wised to say "only-begotten", then he would have used the Greek, "μονογέννητος". Versions like the KJV were influenced, not by the Greek, but rather by Jerome's Latin Vulgate, which used "unigenitus". The Old Latin before Jerome's time, used, "unicus", which is literally, "unique", which is exactly what "μονογενής" means!

 

ah, you and your 95% of INCORRECT "evidence"!

 

do the words become "uninspired"?

 

HOW can the verse with "Son" show Jesus' Deity? Can you really use this reading to show that Jesus Christ is God, when speaking with the JW's?

 

What do you use for a text?

Comparatively Correct or Demonically known to be Corrupt? (Westcott)

 

and what are you on about? I am dealing with the meaning of words!

 

Or the text that was done by someone enslaved to Rome theology, and who took in readings from the Vulgate and at times God only knows, Eramus?

 

What if those words have been intentionally altered, by Demonic influence? "Wrestled", for example, by Westcott and Hort, as directly involved with Familiar Spirits, in Saunces, etc.

 

The text 'used for what'? To deny Jesus, or not relevant?

 

the Church used Jerome's Latin Vulgate for over 1000 years. It was only in 1488 that the Hebrew Bible was published. Then, in 1502, the Roman Catholic Cardinal Ximenes, began work on his elaborate edition of the Holy Bible. For the OT he used the Hebrew, Greek, Latin; and for the NT, Greek and Latin. The Vulgate did have much influence on the Versions after, like Wycliffe, the first English Bible.

 

Are you referring to the Greek, or Latin? the Greek dates from the 2nd century AD, and the Old Latin, about the same time. the Vulgate by Jerome is 4th century. So, nothing to do with W&H!

 

99.5% which is 4.5% better. Your bad mss maybe all of 7 total mss are at best maybe 0.5% of the evidence for John 1:18. 100% would be where the readings agree.

 

yeah, and you know zilch about textual studies!

 

One of the 5 mss is Vanticanus.