Further, while located in Geneva, Switzerland, John Calvin was French. I have no doubt he knew French and was fluent in Latin. I sincerely doubt he knew English anywhere near the level needed to translate Scripture.
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These are specific and direct assertions about the King James translation, its translators, and its editors. In what way are they a response to “Onlyism”?
Thanks.
The Geneva Bible has marginal notesThe 1560 Geneva Bible is not a John Calvin study Bible. John Calvin was not one of its translators. The great majority of the KJV translators were Calvinists just as the translators of the 1560 Geneva Bible were.
The Church of England makers of the KJV could be said to have blood on their hands since at least two of them were involved in having two men burned at the stake for their beliefs. Several of the KJV translators were members of the Court of High Commission that was involved in persecution of professed believers who disagreed with any Church of England doctrines. The KJV translators were not repentant for their sins in persecuting others for their faith and for denying them liberty in Christ.
The Church of England makers of the KJV accepted the Church of England's doctrine of baptismal regeneration kept from the Roman Catholic Church.
But we are not talking about Scripture being a barrier. We are talking about the insufficiency of a translation to communicate to a people (even if it is a lack of understanding, patience, or work on the part of a people).Well, I guess we could say the book of Isaiah was a barrier to the salvation of the eunuch of Ethiopia, Acts 8:30-31.
They may be, but are they? Do they assert themselves to be for that reason? It would not be hard to imagine the thread started by robycop to be so, even if he does not mention it, since that is one of the few strings he plays on his banjo; but the other guy, I don't know. He does not say that is his reason in the OP. Nevertheless, regardless of what they may be, that the posts are direct assertions about the King James translation, its translators, and its editors cannot be denied....they may be attempts to answer KJV-only assertions made for the KJV.
Unless you deny that translations of scripture are scripture, you were. I don't know what you think about that. Even more, we probably should back up to your use of barrier. To me a barrier is something that blocks access. Perhaps that is not what you meant. Please explain what you mean by something being a barrier to salvation.But we are not talking about Scripture being a barrier.
No, the topic of the thread is whether some people do or do not hate the KJV.The question is why use a translation that has become archaic?
DeaconPete, welcome to the Baptist Board. I hope you find it a blessing.I grew up on the KJV and have no hate for it whatsoever
The 1611 edition of the KJV has marginal notes. The 1611 edition of the KJV also had content headings for each chapter, and some of them indicate Church of England doctrinal views.The Geneva Bible has marginal notes
My position is that translations of Scripture are translations of Scripture. They are in effect tools used to communicate words from one language to another.Unless you deny that translations of scripture are scripture, you were. I don't know what you think about that. Even more, we probably should back up to your use of barrier. To me a barrier is something that blocks access. Perhaps that is not what you meant. Please explain what you mean by something being a barrier to salvation. No, the topic of the thread is whether some people do or do not hate the KJV.
You have 100% totally missed it. There is no KJV hate. It is the idolitry of KJVonlyism that is opposed. Ask yourself what is wrong with onlyism. That is telling lies about other versions, pretending the KJV is the only legitimate Bible, despite the fact that the KJV was made from earlier multiple legitimate Bibles. The list goes on and on.
Well, Sir, I had the privilege of driving a pristine 1911 Model T from Portsmouth, OH to Cincy. At first it was a blast, waving to people & sounding the "Ah-OO-ga" horn. Then, reality soon set in after I passed Lucasville. The beast required constant steering, & felt as if it had re-bars for shocks. The brakes were fair. It would only go about 50-55 MPH & was quite-noisy. It held 9 gallons of gas, & I had to use an additive for each fill-up. Then, there was that tricky crank starter. Being a fairly big feller, I could crank it & be clear in case, when the engine fired, the gear for the crank didn't disengage & spun the crank. Good thing it didn't rain, as I would have to have both steered & operated the wipers by hand. I was quite-exhausted when I reached my destination!Exactly my point about those who hate the KJV. The model T had a better reliability than any other make of Cars. It was easy to keep it going the maintenance was easy and the mechanics were understandable. Today not so much. Man just isn't happy ,with simplicity. There are words in the NASB I can't find the meaning of in a common dictionary.
MB
That's because no one claims any other version is perfect, but many KJVOs falsely claim the KJV is perfect, so they must be proven wrong.If you don't hate the KJV why keep running it down. No one is complaining about the mistakes in your version
No, Easter didn't exist then. The Roman spring rite was called "Saturnalia". If that was what Luke was writing about, he woulda used that name or something similar. "Pascha" was NEVER used for "Saturnalia"! In his time, it meant only "passover".Act 12:3 And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.)
Act 12:4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.
Easter was a celebration of spring even before Christ. Easter has nothing to do with Christ resurrection.
MB
12 For the word of God is (WHAT IT IS)
(PERSONALITY)
Well, "Easter" in Acts 12:4 is certainly a goof! "And shalt be" in Rev. 16:5 is a goof, as those words are NOT FOUND in that verse in any known ancient Greek ms. of Revelation.For the record, I don't agree with any of that. Nothing Archaic about KJV. You would have to strictly define "goofs". I see nothing I would call "goofs".
Do you avoid or ignore the fact that the Scriptures sometimes makes use of figures of speech that are not to be understood literally? One of those figures of speech used is personification. E. W. Bullinger defined this figure as follows: "A figure by which things are represented or spoken of as persons; or, by which we attribute intelligence, by words or actions, to inanimate objects or abstract ideas" (Figures of Speech, p. 861).
The 1611 edition of the KJV does not have the pronoun "its", and present KJV editions only have "its" one time. Instead the KJV will use "his" or "her" instead even though the pronoun is not being used for a person.
No, to hold to "fact" that one translation is the ONLY One God uses and made!Your opinion is it’s error to believe in a superior translation.
We do not hate the Kjv, but when we state that KJVO is error, those into it see that as us despising the Kjv!I will not name names of posters that have shown hatred or dislike for KJV outside of this thread. That will surely get me banned. Baptist for life has posted several threads though that prove my point. What else can I do for you?
No, its error to hold to what not even the 1611 team did regarding the kjv!Your opinion is it’s error to believe in a superior translation.