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KJV hate

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Yeshua1

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12 For the word of God is (WHAT IT IS)

1) Is quick, and
2) is powerful, and
3) Is sharper than any twoedged sword,

(WHAT IT DOES)

1) piercing even to the dividing asunder of soul and spirit, and of
2) piercing even to the dividing asunder of the joints and marrow, and
3) is a discerner of the thoughts and intents of the heart.

(PERSONALITY)

13 Neither is there any creature that is not manifest in his sight: but
all things are naked and opened unto the eyes of him with whom we have to do.

Why would Conan accuse someone of idolatry for devotion to the scriptures. Does he not say the scriptures make manifest the intentions of the heart? The above is a statement of the word of God, even in modern translations.

Why is it wrong with devoting oneself to the scriptures if you agree they are the scriptures. How can one go wrong if you yourself will agree that my copy of the KJV is and will do all the things above? Are you saying it will not do them if I do not agree with your take on Christianity and that you are the final arbiter of truth?
The word of the Lord referred to then was the Hebrew and later on Greek books!
 

rlvaughn

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By "barrier" I do mean something that blocks access.
Thanks for explaining further. My comment below was in response to the meaning of blocks access, so it no longer applies as a reply to your comment.
I do not agree, but if I did think the KJV was an barrier towards salvation, I could see that as a reason to dislike it.
 
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JD731

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The word of the Lord referred to then was the Hebrew and later on Greek books!

The passage I quoted from Hebrews merely said the word of God is quick. It did not say just the Hebrew was quick or the Hebrew and the Greek, He actually wrote this statement to the Hebrew people in the Greek language. It said the word of God is quick. Then, it began to say what it is and what it does and what it can do and most translations use a personal pronoun when referring to it.

What else in the scriptures is said to be quick? What does it mean to you when the scriptures describes themselves as being alive? Or, is the word of God in the epistle to the Hebrews a reference to Jesus Christ and the author is actually referring to a person, as if Jesus Christ and the word of God is one in the same? Is there a passage in scripture where Jesus Christ is actually called the word of God?

Revelation 19:13
And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called The Word of God.

This proves without a doubt that the word of God has personality. No?
 

Logos1560

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Or, is the word of God in the epistle to the Hebrews a reference to Jesus Christ and the author is actually referring to a person, as if Jesus Christ and the word of God is one in the same?

Some KJV-only advocates incorrectly attempt to suggest that the Lord Jesus Christ and the Scriptures are one in the same when they are not. The Lord Jesus Christ is not an inanimate written scroll or printed book. The same name or term can be used in different senses for two different things.

The written or printed word of God does not reproduce itself, making copies of itself or even making translations of itself without any need for imperfect human beings to do the reproducing (copying or printing) or the translating.
 

Reynolds

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Well, "Easter" in Acts 12:4 is certainly a goof! "And shalt be" in Rev. 16:5 is a goof, as those words are NOT FOUND in that verse in any known ancient Greek ms. of Revelation.

Gen. 43:30-And Joseph made haste; for his bowels did yearn upon his brother: and he sought where to weep; and he entered into his chamber, and wept there.
Please tell us this isn't archaic.
Not a good at all. Not an ideal translation, but not s good. I am sure it was thought out and the decision made to use Easter. Good would be an accident.

Not archaic at all.
 

JD731

Well-Known Member
Some KJV-only advocates incorrectly attempt to suggest that the Lord Jesus Christ and the Scriptures are one in the same when they are not. The Lord Jesus Christ is not an inanimate written scroll or printed book. The same name or term can be used in different senses for two different things.

The written or printed word of God does not reproduce itself, making copies of itself or even making translations of itself without any need for imperfect human beings to do the reproducing (copying or printing) or the translating.

I am not sure if it is my statements you disagree with or with the scriptures. I just quoted what the scriptures stated and made some logical deductions.

Let's see, you claim that the author of Hebrews is not speaking of my KJV or your NIV when he says the word of God is quick or alive. right? That it cannot do the things it claims it can do because it is inanimate? That Hebrews 4 and Rev 19 is not referencing the same word of God?

Okay, I got you. I know where you are coming from. Thanks.
 

thomas15

Well-Known Member
I am not sure if it is my statements you disagree with or with the scriptures. I just quoted what the scriptures stated and made some logical deductions.

Let's see, you claim that the author of Hebrews is not speaking of my KJV or your NIV when he says the word of God is quick or alive. right? That it cannot do the things it claims it can do because it is inanimate? That Hebrews 4 and Rev 19 is not referencing the same word of God?

Okay, I got you. I know where you are coming from. Thanks.

You are kidding...right?
 

JD731

Well-Known Member
You are kidding...right?

Hi Thomas.

Kidding about what?

In 1 Peter 1, Peter told the strangers to whom he addressed his epistles the following.

Being born again, not by corruptible seed but by incorruptible, by the word of God, which liveth and abideth forever.

This is the second place I have quoted that says the word of God is alive. Am I suppose to believe that? Do you believe it? How do you handle a statement like that in the context of your belief system?
 

robycop3

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Not a good at all. Not an ideal translation, but not s good. I am sure it was thought out and the decision made to use Easter. Good would be an accident.
No matter who made the decision, it's a goof. Easter didn't exist when Luke wrote "Acts" & in his time, pascha meant only passover.

Not archaic at all.
Yes, it is. Please tell us why you think it's not.
 

robycop3

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It is despising What makes you think modern versions are more accurate?..
MB
Very easy. They read the correct "passover" in Acts 12:4 rather than "Easter"; they correctly read "murder" rather than "kill" in Ex. 20:13,; they correctly read "the love of money is A root of ALL SORTS of evil" in 1 Tim. 6:10 rather than "the love of money is THE root of ALL evil." That's just for starters.
 

thomas15

Well-Known Member
Hi Thomas.

Kidding about what?

In 1 Peter 1, Peter told the strangers to whom he addressed his epistles the following.

Being born again, not by corruptible seed but by incorruptible, by the word of God, which liveth and abideth forever.

This is the second place I have quoted that says the word of God is alive. Am I suppose to believe that? Do you believe it? How do you handle a statement like that in the context of your belief system?

I think you are just kidding for the joy of kidding.

Nothing wrong with that.
 

rlvaughn

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No matter who made the decision, it's a goof. Easter didn't exist when Luke wrote "Acts" & in his time, pascha meant only passover.
Your inability to learn anything about this is the biggest goof of all. Both Easter and Passover are English words that did not exist when Luke wrote the book of Acts. If your line of reasoning were valid, it would be wrong to make translations of the Bible, for all specialized words would not have existed in the receptor languages before the Bible was brought to them.
 
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