KJV-only & "replenish the earth"

[Logos1560]

Do KJV-only assumptions or reasoning ever cause holders of that view to make wrong and inaccurate claims?

Len Smith, the KJV-only author quoted in the topic "amazing KJV-only claims," also wrote the
following:

"In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth (Ge 1:1). And obviously at that point man was not around because man was not created until Ge 1:26. But notice in v. 28 that God told man to multiply and replenish the earth. Replenish means to refill or to fill again and implies that something was there before. That would mean two things: First, there was an earth before the seven-day creation, and second, it was populated." (THE AGE OF REASON, chapter D4, p. 1)

 

[TCassidy]

Replenish means "to fill" - Middle English replenisshen, from Old French replenir, repleniss- : re-, re- + plenir, to fill (from plein, full, from Latin plnus. See pel-1 in Indo-European Roots).

Hebrew mala - to fill.

Does react mean to act again?

Does rebate mean to bate again?

Does rebel mean to bell again?

Does rebuff mean to buff again?

Does rebuke mean to buke again?

Does rebut mean to but again?

Does recant mean to cant again?

Does receive mean to ceive again?

Does recess mean to cess again?

Does recital mean to cital again?

Does recline mean to cline again?

Well, you get the idea.

 

[HankD]

Remarkable.

HankD

 

[APuritanMindset]

Logos has a point though. A KJV-only-er made that statement. Also, when most people these days read the word "replenish" they think of something having been there before and it needs to be redone. I think this is a good case where a modern translation would be helpful (along with an understanding of Greek). Alas, not many KJV-only people, from my experience, have much knowledge of Greek though...

 

[robycop3]

The same Hebrew is used in Gen. 9:1 where God tells Noah & Co. to replenish the earth.

 

[icthus]

I think that the KJV made a bad choice of word here, as it can also mean to "fill again". The Hebrew is "male", and BDB renders is "fill"

 

[robycop3]

An archaic use of "replenish" is "to supply fully", as if there had been no prior supply. However, I don't know if this meaning was still in use in 1604.

 

[Logos1560]

Originally posted by robycop3:
The same Hebrew is used in Gen. 9:1 where God tells Noah & Co. to replenish the earth.

Len Smith, this KJV-only author, wrote: "God used the same word when He later told Noah to multiply and replenish the earth (Gen. 9:1). God obviously used replenish with Noah because, first, the earth existed before Noah's flood, and second, it had been populated by Adam's descendants" (AGE OF REASON, D4, p. 1).

By the way, I in wise suggest that the KJV translators themselves intended the meaning of "replenish" to be "refill." One reason for this reason was to show how that those who make the KJV the final authority and refuse to accept any other authorities and evidence that contradicts their KJV-only reasoning may make
wrong interpretations of the KJV. There seems to
be no way to convince these-type KJV-only authors that their reasoning is incorrect. They will not consider the evidence of the meaning of the Hebrew word or how earlier good English Bibles translated the word or even how the KJV translators translated the same Hebrew word at other verses.

 

[Logos1560]

Originally posted by APuritanMindset:
Logos has a point though. A KJV-only-er made that statement. I think this is a good case where a modern translation would be helpful.

This is also a good case where the earlier English Bibles are helpful.

At Genesis 1:28, the 1380's Wycliffe's Bible, the 1534 Tyndale's partial O. T., the 1535 Coverdale's Bible, the 1537 Matthew's, the 1539 Taverner's, the 1539 Great Bible, and 1560 Geneva Bible all had "fill the earth."

At this verse, the 1611 KJV kept "replenish the earth" from the Bishops' Bible.

At several other verses, the KJV translators translated this same Hebrew word as "fill."