KJV VS. NKJV

[stevewm1963]

All my life I've read the KJV and i will continue to do so! Many say they cannot understand the KJV and that is so confusing to me because i understand it just fine! So would others if they allow the Holy Spirit to teach them! With out the Holy Spirit guiding and teaching us then there is not a bible written we could understand!

John 14:26 King James Version (KJV)
26 But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you.

1 John 2:27King James Version (KJV)
27 But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it hath taught you, ye shall abide in him.

 

[TCassidy]

I believe in an introduction of a NKJV they say they used Biblia Sturgessia (not sure if that spelling is correct), and that they also consulted the Septuagint. I do not consider those texts to be accurate.

The NKJV Old Testament is based on Biblia Hebraica Stuttgartensia and the KJV is based on the Hebrew text of Daniel Bomberg's Second Rabbinic Bible, as edited by Rabbi Abraham Ben Chayyim. Biblia Hebraica Stuttgartensia differs from the Ben Chayyim text, (Bomberg) in only eight places: Proverbs 8:16; Isaiah 10:16; Isaiah 27:2; Isaiah 38:14; Jeremiah 34:1; Ezekiel 30:18; Zephaniah 3:15; and Malachi 1:12. And in every case the NKJV follows the reading of the KJV.

 

[SovereignGrace]

All my life I've read the KJV and i will continue to do so! Many say they cannot understand the KJV and that is so confusing to me because i understand it just fine! So would others if they allow the Holy Spirit to teach them! With out the Holy Spirit guiding and teaching us then there is not a bible written we could understand!

John 14:26 King James Version (KJV)
26 But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you.

1 John 2:27King James Version (KJV)
27 But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it hath taught you, ye shall abide in him.

This same method applies to all bible versions. The Spirit works through His word. Last I checked the word of God was written in anything but English.

I like to use the KJV, NIV, YLT, and NASB(to a lesser extent).

 

[Logos1560]

My understanding is that for the Old Testament the NKJV used a corrupted Hebrew Text.

Perhaps your understanding is incorrect.

If you mean that they used an imperfect edition of the Hebrew text, the same is true of the KJV translators. The NKJV translators used a different printed edition of the same Hebrew text used in the making of the KJV, and they also consulted and compared their printed edition to the same edition used in the making of the KJV. The NKJV translators followed the ben Chayyim text in the few places where their printed edition differed so they in effect followed the same Hebrew text as the KJV translators.

Did you not notice in the preface to the NKJV about "frequent comparisons being made with the Bomberg edition of 1524-25"?

The KJV translators consulted the Greek Septuagint just as the NKJV translators did, and the KJV translators were sometimes influenced by the Greek Septuagint.

 

[robycop3]

All my life I've read the KJV and i will continue to do so! Many say they cannot understand the KJV and that is so confusing to me because i understand it just fine! So would others if they allow the Holy Spirit to teach them! With out the Holy Spirit guiding and teaching us then there is not a bible written we could understand!

John 14:26 King James Version (KJV)
26 But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you.

1 John 2:27King James Version (KJV)
27 But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it hath taught you, ye shall abide in him.

I could pick up & read-understand a Slobbovian Bible version if the Holy Spirit wanted me to, but He assigned everyday USA English to me as my language. While I, who read Chaucer at an early age, have no trouble with the KJV, not everyone can say the same, especially someone who learned English as a 2nd language. I have often mentioned the Korean doctor whom I lent a KJV while he was waiting for a Korean-language Bible to arrive, and came across "suffer little children" & was baffled by it.

God has caused His word to be translated into TODAY'S English for our benefit. remember, it's GOD who made all languages, & causes/allows changes in each of them.

I use the NKJV & NASV equally as much. I study several older translations such as Wycliffe's & Geneva.

 

[stevewm1963]

I could pick up & read-understand a Slobbovian Bible version if the Holy Spirit wanted me to, but He assigned everyday USA English to me as my language. While I, who read Chaucer at an early age, have no trouble with the KJV, not everyone can say the same, especially someone who learned English as a 2nd language. I have often mentioned the Korean doctor whom I lent a KJV while he was waiting for a Korean-language Bible to arrive, and came across "suffer little children" & was baffled by it.

God has caused His word to be translated into TODAY'S English for our benefit. remember, it's GOD who made all languages, & causes/allows changes in each of them.

I use the NKJV & NASV equally as much. I study several older translations such as Wycliffe's & Geneva.

Well I'm an American and I assume every nation has their own version of Gods Word in their language! I wouldn't expect someone unfamiliar with the english language to understand the KJV...I assume I'm speaking to english speaking Americans when I post on here!

 

[Yeshua1]

Do not get me wrong I love the KJV but I also like the NKJV. Anybody out there feel the same way? I started using it from the pulpit and my people seem to love it also.

Would say that the NKJV would be the rightful heir to the KJV, and should be seen as being tit upgraded into modern version!

 

[Jordan Kurecki]

Would say that the NKJV would be the rightful heir to the KJV, and should be seen as being tit upgraded into modern version!

NKJV

Hebrews 3:16
For who, having heard, rebelled? Indeed, was it not all who came out of Egypt, led by Moses?

KJV Hebrews 3:16
For some, when they had heard, did provoke: howbeit not all that came out of Egypt by Moses.

KJV II Kings 23:29
In his days Pharaohnechoh king of Egypt went up against the king of Assyria to the river Euphrates: and king Josiah went against him; and he slew him at Megiddo, when he had seen him.


NKJV II Kings 23:29
In his days Pharaoh Necho king of Egypt went to the aid of the king of Assyria, to the River Euphrates; and King Josiah went against him. And Pharaoh Necho killed him at Megiddo when he confronted him.

The NKJV says the opposite of the KJV in some places... the NKJV is a [Edited to remove vile attack on the bible] of the KJV.

KJV Hebrews 2:16
For verily he took not on him the nature of angels; but he took on him the seed of Abraham.

NKJV Hebrews 2:16
For indeed He does not give aid to angels, but He doesgive aid to the seed of Abraham.

Wow... what a [Edited to remove vile attack on the bible] here!

http://www.letgodbetrue.com/bible/scripture/new-king-james-version.php

 

[JonC]

The lack of the "thees" and "thous" is actually a weekness. Greek pronouns identify their case and number (Nominative, Objective and Singular or Plural) and the "thees" and "thous" carried that additional information over into English which the generic "you" fails to do.

What it is important to remember is that the "thees" and "thous" were no longer in common use in England between 1604 and 1611, the time of the Millenary Petition and the publication of the KJV of 1611. That can be seen by reading "To The Reader" from the original 1611 edition. With the exception of when the Geneva Bible is quoted there is nary a "thee" or a "thou" to be seen. They were carried over from Middle English (1100-1500) for the purpose of identifying the case and number of the pronouns. (Simply put if the pronoun starts with a "t" it is singular (thou, thee, thy, thine) and if it starts with a "y" it is plural (ye, you, your and yours). (As to case, singular nominative is "thou" and singular objective is "thee." Plural nominative is "ye" and plural objective is "you." "Thy" and "Thine" are singular possessive and "your" and "yours" are plural possessive.)

Of course, being in Texas I have the advantage. You seen, Texican (the English spoken in Texas) provides that information. We say "You" "You all" (or "Y'all") and "all You all" (or "all y'all").

That is interesting. When we read Shakespeare, then, is it due to the genre that he maintains such language ("thees" and "thous")? Or was it still common usage at the tail end of the 16th century?

 

[TCassidy]

Or was it still common usage at the tail end of the 16th century?

No. It was the formal use of language on the stage of that day. The common people speaking every day did not use the old pronouns.

 

[Martin Marprelate]

That is interesting. When we read Shakespeare, then, is it due to the genre that he maintains such language ("thees" and "thous")? Or was it still common usage at the tail end of the 16th century?

Shakespeare tends to use 'you' most of the time. Interestingly, he uses the archaic forms most often (though not exclusively) for terms of abuse. "Thou knave, thou naughty knave" etc.

 

[JonC]

In another English masterpiece I recall a few "thees" and "thous," but brother Maynard was using "religious" language. I can understand archaic language and immagry used in poetry and other literary forms. And in this translation I can understand the use as both formal and precise language.

I found this interesting. It's good to learn new stuff.

 

[Jerome]

...That can be seen by reading "To The Reader" from the original 1611 edition. With the exception of when the Geneva Bible is quoted there is nary a "thee" or a "thou" to be seen.

Huh?