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KJV
- Thread starter Salty
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Konstantin
Member
What are you talking about?
In post # 3 of this link, Soon: 1000 years of Peace
You stated: "the Bible says that this text is inspired."
Where does Scripture state that only the KJV is the only correct translation?
I think I already asked him that
Konstantin
Member
I will give you a link. You will find many references from the Bible on it, but I don't think you will understand anything? "Библия Короля"
We are English users here, not Greex. And Greex who don't know English don't use the KJV.
Have no ideal why you gave me such an unneeded link
So - lets try this again:
WHERE IN THE KING JAMES VERSION DOES IT STATE IT IS THE ONLY CORRECT TRANSLATION
Konstantin
Member
If you are really interested in this question, translate the text from Russian and get not only links, but also explanations for them.
NO - I am just interested in you answering the question - of which you initially commented on.
Now, this is the last time, I am going to ask
I really dont know why you are refusing -
UNLESS you do NOT know the answer.
So - PLEASE lets stay on the subject.
I did read the link, thanks to Google translate. It's in line with the more radical KJVO essays.
Konstantin
Member
If it's not clear, I can repeat it again. There are many references from the Bible. If I give you a set of these links, you still won't understand anything. This is a complete work and must be read in its entirety. In addition, there is no guarantee that you will understand anything by reading this work.
Konstantin
Member
The Bible indicates all the most important details of the appearance of the inspired text. Who ordered translate it. Who financed it. What manuscripts was it translated from? What year was it published etc.
Google gave KJVO to you
Since:
a) You refuse to answer
b) You do not know the answer
c) You may not understand your own question
I have no choice but to end this conversation.
In addition - I will only assume this is how you will handle
any future discussion.
Again - a word to the wise is sufficient.
The inspired text was the original 'autographs'. God caused them to be copied & translated. Remember, it's GOD who made all languages. The inspired texts were written in Hebrew, Aramaic, & Koine Greek because those were the languages of His chosen penmen. NOW, CAN YOU ANSWER SALTY'S QUESTION WITHOUT ANY RED HERRINGS?
Konstantin
Member
God has made everything much easier and clearer than you think. He gave to ALL people, the Inspired text in one international language at the right time for this)))
No; He gave it in Hebrew, Aramaic, & Koine Greek, the languages of His chosen penmen. 99.99% of us use translations made from those languages.
God Himself did not say that He gave all people the inspired text in the KJV. You are reading into verses something that God did not say. You are trying to put words in the mouth of God that He did not say.
The actual Scriptures given by inspiration of God were the ones given to the prophets and apostles, and they were given many years before 1611.
The Scriptures had been translated into English many years before 1611.
God would not contradict Himself and say that the word of God is bound to the textual criticism decisions, Bible revision decisions, and translation decisions of one exclusive group of Church of England critics in 1611.
God would not contradict Himself and show partiality to one exclusive group of Church of England priests in 1611. Human KJV-only reasoning would make God contradict what He stated in the Scriptures.
Obviously nothing before 1611 is inspired
right?
right?
Konstantin
Member
I'm not interested in your philosophical research.
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