I think that is a wise course of action, Abiyah. If we really want to know why the KJV translators chose to use the word 'easter' in Acts 12:4, we probably would have to check their notes (or the notes in the original 1611 version), but I don't know where to go to find them. The quess I offered was given in the attempt to give the KJV translators some benefit of the doubt and to supply the KJVO's with a new line of argument to look into so that we don't have to keep hearing this same nonsense repeated all the time. I don't like seeing my brothers in Christ continue to make themselves look so foolish. If I can offer a more reasonable option for them to consider, instead of just destroying their present arguments, perhaps they will be more willing to give up such embarrassingly misguided arguments in the future.
Pastork
[ December 11, 2002, 04:43 PM: Message edited by: Pastork ]
Pastork
[ December 11, 2002, 04:43 PM: Message edited by: Pastork ]