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KJVO and the Strongs Concordance

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Reformed1689

Reformed1689

Well-Known Member
37818 said:
You still did not give one example. And I have used a Strong's Exhaustive Concordance to study and use my KJV over 50 years. And I still use the KJV as my preferred translation.
You allegation is nonsense.
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The point is that it is not the same as actually studying Greek and knowing and understanding Greek. Some people, not saying you, assume that the Strongs is all they need and they can fully understand the Greek.
 
37818

37818

Well-Known Member
Reformed1689 said:
The point is that it is not the same as actually studying Greek and knowing and understanding Greek. Some people, not saying you, assume that the Strongs is all they need and they can fully understand the Greek.
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Strong's Dictionaries are not grammars. His concordance only shows the base word behind the translation. For example the KJV uses the translation of three different words in the Greek as "hell." It is important to know which word is mentioned in the Greek being translated as,"hell."
 
timtofly

timtofly

Well-Known Member
Unless you are Jesus Christ all sermons should be Scripture reading and no human commentary at all, no? I mean once you leave Scripture you have entered interpretation, and that is either error or not.

If one is concerned about error, stop preaching once interpretation starts. If one is not concerned about error and has faith, that God will lead one in the truth necessary, it does not matter if humans condemn you for heresy. It is God you answer to, not man.

There is nothing wrong with attempting to explain in more detail Scripture. That is not adding to God's Word. The problem comes when a person claims Scripture is wrong, and attempts to give a more human understanding than what God has given. If one is going to constantly correct God's Word, may as well use any book to preach from.
 
Truther

Truther

Member
37818 said:
You still did not give one example. And I have used a Strong's Exhaustive Concordance to study and use my KJV over 50 years. And I still use the KJV as my preferred translation.
Your allegation is nonsense.
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So, you never noticed alternative meanings per a Strongs Greek word?

Strongs says the exact words as the KJV?
 
L

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Truther said:
I am sola scriptura(KJVO).

The Strongs concordance, etc, is a booby trap for the pure word of God.

It is specifically designed to redefine the Bible and open it up to closet redefinitions.
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Being KJV-only is not the same thing as "sola scriptura."

Being KJV-only would be evidence of adding human opinions and traditions of men to the Scriptures. The KJV itself does not state nor teach KJV-onlyism. KJV-only advocates read their own personal KJV-only opinions into verses that do not state nor teach those opinions.

Perhaps your human, subjective, non-scriptural reasoning concerning the KJV is a booby trap that has misled or deceived you to believe assertions that are not true.
 
Truther

Truther

Member
Logos1560 said:
Being KJV-only is not the same thing as "sola scriptura."

Being KJV-only would be evidence of adding human opinions and traditions of men to the Scriptures. The KJV itself does not state nor teach KJV-onlyism. KJV-only advocates read their own personal KJV-only opinions into verses that do not state nor teach those opinions.

Perhaps your human, subjective, non-scriptural reasoning concerning the KJV is a booby trap that has misled or deceived you to believe assertions that are not true.
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I know that KJVO and sola scriptura are not the same, but only the KJV qualifies as scriptura to me.

The modern versions are sola commentaria.
 
Reformed1689

Reformed1689

Well-Known Member
Truther said:
God used imperfect humans to translate His perfect word in 1611 into the English language.

God can do that.

God was a step ahead of the last days revival before Jesus returns, helping the reformation.
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And what makes the KJV the only perfect translation?
 
J

JesusFan

Well-Known Member
Truther said:
I just did.

I teach the Bible without a "side book" to help redefine the words that the KJV translators "did not quite get across".

You know, how Strongs is used to "add a little extra meaning" to the Bible words?

Who are these guys that debunked the KJV, anyway?

This is subversion.
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You do know that the Kjv translations used lexicons and dictionaries of their time as consulting sources, correct?
 
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